UPSC Prelims · General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper (GS Paper 1) with Answers

Every question the UPSC asked in the 2017 Prelims General Studies paper, in exam order. Each one carries its four options, the correct answer and the reasoning behind it.

100questions

10subjects

14years in the bank

What 2017 actually tested

Indian Polity22
Indian Economy18
Environment14
Science & Technology10
History9
Indian Society8
International Relations7
Indian Geography5
Art & Culture5
World Geography2

The 2017 paper, question by question

1Indian Economy
With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act) consider the following statements: 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D2 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Under the PBPT Act, a transaction is specifically defined as benami if the person in whose name the property is held (the benamidar) is unaware of the transaction or denies knowledge of it. Therefore, lack of awareness does not exempt a transaction; rather, it is one of the conditions that characterizes a benami transaction.
Statement 2 is Correct: Section 5 of the Act provides that any property which is the subject matter of a benami transaction shall be liable to be confiscated by the Central Government.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Act provides for four authorities for the purpose of the Act: the Initiating Officer, the Approving Authority, the Administrator, and the Adjudicating Authority. Furthermore, the Act does provide for an appellate mechanism; any person aggrieved by an order of the Adjudicating Authority can appeal to the Appellate Tribunal, and subsequently to the High Court.
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2Indian Polity
In India, Judicial Review implies -
1. AThe power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
2. BThe power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
3. CThe power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
4. DThe power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Judiciary to examine laws and executive actions to ensure they comply with the Constitution of India.
This power allows the courts to strike down any law or executive order that is found to be unconstitutional, thereby upholding the supremacy of the Constitution.
Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Basic Structure Doctrine, ensuring the protection of fundamental rights and the separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
Thus, Judicial Review acts as a safeguard against unconstitutional actions and reinforces the rule of law in India.
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3Indian Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C3 only
4. D2 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is Correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) does decide the RBI's benchmark interest rates. This is its primary function, and it influences the cost of borrowing and lending in the economy.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MPC is a 6-member body, not 12. It includes the Governor of RBI and other members appointed by the government. The committee is not reconstituted every year, but members serve for specified terms.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the Governor of RBI, not the Union Finance Minister.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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4Indian Economy
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' (NAM) scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to the nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price through smooth marketing.
Statement 1 is Correct: Pan-India electronic trading portal (Correct) This is a core feature of NAM. It creates a unified online platform where farmers can connect with buyers from across the country, eliminating geographical restrictions and potentially increasing market access.
Statement 2 is Correct: Access to nationwide markets and better prices (Correct) NAM allows farmers to see prices prevailing in various mandis (wholesale markets) across the country. This transparency empowers them to choose the market offering the best price for their produce, potentially fetching them higher returns compared to traditional, localised markets.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 both are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.
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5Indian Economy
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an -
1. AASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
2. BWorld Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships PPPs to enable mobilization of the private sector and institutional investor capital.
3. CCollaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
4. DUNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership between governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers.
The GIF provides comprehensive project support by utilizing the combined expertise of its technical and advisory partners, including commercial banks and institutional investors. This ensures that well-structured and bankable infrastructure projects are brought to market sustainably, meeting the needs of governments and service users.
The GIF partnership is overseen by a Governing Council that supervises strategic programming and funds management, as well as the development of operational policies and procedures. Additionally, the Governing Council holds the GIF's management accountable for delivering on objectives and principles. The Governing Council is composed of representatives of funding and technical partners, as well as representatives of emerging markets and developing economies. It is co-chaired by the World Bank Group and a Funding Partner.
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6Indian Geography
At one of the places in India if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at -
1. ABhavnagar
2. BBheemunipatnam
3. CChandipur
4. DNagapattinam
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Chandipur Beach, located in the Balasore district of Odisha, is characterized by an exceptionally shallow gradient and a flat sea bed. This unique topography causes the seawater to recede by approximately 2 to 5 kilometers during low tide, exposing the sea floor and allowing people to walk on it. The water returns to the shore during high tide, a cycle that repeats twice daily following the rhythmic tidal fluctuations of the Bay of Bengal.
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7History
Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
1. AKakinada
2. BMotupalli
3. CMachilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
4. DNelluru
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Motupalli was the most significant seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom. To promote foreign trade, King Ganapati Deva issued the famous Motupalli Inscription (Abhaya Shasanam), which acted as a charter of security by granting protection to merchants and fixing reasonable customs duties on exports and imports. The Venetian traveler Marco Polo visited this port (referring to it as 'Mutfili') during the reign of Queen Rudrama Devi and documented the kingdom's prosperity, specifically praising its production of fine muslin and diamonds.
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8Environment
The term 'M-STRIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
1. ACaptive breeding of Wild Fauna
2. BMaintenance of Tiger Reserves
3. CIndigenous Satellite Navigation System
4. DSecurity of National Highways
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
M-STRIPES stands for Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It's a software-based program launched by the Indian government's National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to -Strengthen protection efforts for Bengal tigers in Indian tiger reserves. -Enhance monitoring and patrolling activities by forest guards.
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9Indian Society
What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?
1. AAchieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
2. BConnecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
3. CStrengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
4. DDeveloping human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India .
The Mission of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is to enable higher educational institutions to work with the people of rural India in identifying development challenges and evolving appropriate solutions for accelerating sustainable growth. It also aims to create a virtuous cycle between society and an inclusive academic system by providing knowledge and practices for emerging professions and to upgrade the capabilities of both the public and the private sectors in responding to the development needs of rural India.
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10Indian Society
What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 2 only
4. D2 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is incorrect. Vidyanjali Yojana is not focused on attracting foreign universities to set up campuses in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Vidyanjali Yojana aims to improve government schools by leveraging resources and expertise from the private sector (retired professionals, NGOs) and the community (volunteers).
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the initiative might indirectly lead to improved infrastructure due to volunteer efforts, its primary focus is not on monetary contributions for infrastructure development.
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11Indian Polity
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of -
1. APrivileges
2. BRestraints
3. CCompetition
4. DIdeology
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Equality means that everyone has the same rights and opportunities, ensuring a fair and just society.
Privileges: They are the opposite of equality because they represent unearned advantages enjoyed by a select few, contradicting the principle that all individuals should have the same rights and opportunities.
Restraints: Some restrictions are necessary to maintain fairness, protect rights, and prevent harm (e.g., laws against discrimination). These restraints can coexist with equality rather than opposing it.
Competition: A society can be both competitive and equal if opportunities are fairly distributed. Competition can drive innovation and progress, but it does not inherently contradict equality.
Ideology: The impact of ideology on equality depends on its nature. Some ideologies promote social justice and equal rights, while others reinforce inequalities. However, ideology itself is not inherently opposed to equality.
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12Science & Technology
What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?
1. ATo detect neutrinos
2. BTo detect gravitational waves
3. CTo detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
4. DTo study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of spacetime, predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity.
eLISA is a space-based gravitational wave observatory that can detect and study these gravitational waves.
It is a joint project of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). eLISA is designed to detect gravitational waves from astronomical sources such as merging black holes and neutron stars. It would use laser interferometry to measure the tiny distortions in spacetime caused by passing gravitational waves. Detecting gravitational waves would provide important insights into the nature of gravity and the evolution of the universe.
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13Indian Economy
Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? 1. The share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. The share of India's exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
1. A1 and 4 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Share of agriculture in GDP has actually decreased since 1991, as the service sector has grown significantly.
Statement 2 is Correct: Share of India's exports in world trade has increased. India has become a more integrated part of the global economy, with a larger export footprint.
Statement 3 is Correct: FDI inflows have increased considerably. The liberalisation measures made India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.
Statement 4 is Correct: India's foreign exchange reserves have also increased enormously. This reflects India's improved ability to generate foreign currency and manage its external finances.
Therefore, the correct answer is 2, 3, and 4 only. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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14Science & Technology
With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is correct. Genome sequencing can help identify specific genes or genetic markers associated with desirable traits like disease resistance and drought tolerance in crop plants, which can then be used for selective breeding and genetic improvement.
Statement 2 is correct. Genome sequencing can accelerate the process of developing new crop varieties by providing a better understanding of the genetic makeup and facilitating more targeted breeding programs, thereby reducing the time required for varietal development.
Statement 3 is correct. Genome sequencing can help researchers understand the genetic interactions between crop plants and their pathogens, which can aid in developing better strategies for disease management and resistance.
Therefore, all the statements regarding the use of genome sequencing in agriculture in the immediate future are correct.
![Genome Sequencing](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//wgs_d6bb937743.jpg)
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15Science & Technology
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cybersecurity incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is Correct: Under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, and the CERT-In Rules 2013, service providers are legally required to report cybersecurity incidents to the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In). Statement 2 is Correct: Data centres are explicitly listed as entities that must mandatorily report cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In under the Information Technology (CERT-In) Rules, 2013. Statement 3 is Correct: The IT Act and associated rules mandate that body corporates must report specified types of cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In to ensure national cyber security.
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16Environment
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
1. AIt enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
2. BIt no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection, and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
3. CIt is endemic to a particular region of India.
4. DBoth b and c stated above are correct in this context.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides the highest level of legal protection for wildlife in India. Species listed under this Schedule, such as the Tiger, are protected from hunting and trade, with violations attracting the most stringent penalties. Therefore, any species of tortoise listed in Schedule I enjoys the same legal safeguards as the tiger.
Option B is incorrect as it describes the 'Extinct in the Wild' category of the IUCN Red List, which is a biological conservation status rather than a legal designation under the WPA. Option C is incorrect because endemism refers to a species being restricted to a specific geographic location; while many Schedule I species may be endemic, the listing itself is based on the degree of threat and the requirement for absolute protection rather than geographic range.
Note: The original Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, contained six schedules (I-IV for animals, V for vermin, and VI for plants). The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, has since rationalized these into four schedules, but the principle of Schedule I providing the highest protection remains unchanged.
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17Indian Polity
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
1. AFederalism
2. BDemocratic decentralization
3. CAdministrative delegation
4. DDirect democracy
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level.
In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance.
Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing: - Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making. - Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance.
Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.
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18Environment
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
1. ASathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
2. BNallamala Forest
3. CNagarhole National Park
4. DSeshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and Tiger Reserve along the Western Ghats in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
![Satyamangalam Tiger Reserve](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//satyamangalam_tiger_reserve_5c11f2d9fc.PNG)
Largest among the four tiger reserves (Kalakad-Mundanthurai, Annamalai, Mudumalai and Sathyamangalam) in Tamil Nadu, STR is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats, serving as a genetic link to contiguous protected areas including the Biligiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.
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19World Geography
The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 and 4 only
4. D1, 3 and 4 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Jordan does not border the Mediterranean Sea; it is separated from it by Israel and the West Bank. While not landlocked, its only coastline is on the Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea). Statement 2 is Incorrect: Iraq does not border the Mediterranean Sea. It is located further east and has its only maritime access via the Persian Gulf. Statement 3 is Correct: Lebanon is a Levantine country with a coastline along the eastern Mediterranean Sea. Statement 4 is Correct: Syria borders the eastern Mediterranean Sea, situated between Turkey to the north and Lebanon to the south.
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20History
With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
1. A1-2-3
2. B2-1-3
3. C3-2-1
4. D3-1-2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The Second Round Table Conference took place in London in September 1931. It aimed to discuss constitutional reforms in India but ultimately failed to reach a consensus.
The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
The Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy occurred in February 1946. It was a major uprising by Indian sailors against the British Raj, though it happened after the Quit India Movement.
Thus correct chronology of events is 3-2-1 i.e. option 'C'.
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21Environment
Consider the following statements in respect of Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. TRAFFIC is a joint initiative of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).TRAFFIC is not a bureau under UNEP.
Statement 2 is correct. TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental organization (NGO) that works globally to monitor the trade in wild animals and plants. Its mission aligns with ensuring sustainable and legal wildlife trade that doesn't threaten conservation efforts.
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22Indian Society
Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service': 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Career Service is not an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. It is actually implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Career Service has indeed been launched in a Mission Mode, but it is not specifically targeted at improving the employment opportunities for uneducated youth of the country. It is a comprehensive platform providing a wide array of employment and career related services to all citizens of India, aiming to bridge the gap between jobseekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance, and agencies providing training and career counselling.
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23Indian Polity
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
1. AThe Preamble
2. BThe Fundamental Rights
3. CThe Directive Principles of State Policy
4. DThe Fundamental Duties
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as a window into the vision and intent of its makers.
Here's why: - It is the introductory statement that lays the philosophical and ideological foundation of the Constitution, shaping the governance framework of the nation. - It expresses the aspirations and objectives envisioned by the framers, such as securing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens. - It enshrines fundamental principles like sovereignty, democracy, secularism, socialism, and a republic, which define the nature of the Indian state.
While provisions like Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy further elaborate these ideals, the Preamble serves as a concise yet powerful expression of the framers' intent, reflecting the essence of India's constitutional philosophy.
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24International Relations
With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is correct. UN-Habitat's primary mandate, as established by the UN General Assembly, is to promote the development of socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. This includes ensuring adequate shelter for all residents.
Statement 2 is incorrect. UN-Habitat partners with a wider range of stakeholders beyond just governments and local urban authorities. They collaborate with academic institutions, NGOs, private sector entities, and civil society organisations to achieve their goals.
Statement 3 is correct. UN-Habitat's work aligns with the broader UN objectives of poverty reduction and access to essential services.
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25Science & Technology
It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. The production of algae-based biofuels is not limited to seas only. It can be done on land, saline water, or wastewater.
Statement 2 is correct. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production does require a high level of expertise/technology, which might be a limitation for developing countries.
Statement 3 is also correct. Economically viable production of algae-based biofuels does necessitate the setting up of large-scale facilities, which may raise ecological and social concerns.
![Biofuel Classifications](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Biofuel_classifications_9b218127d7.JPG)
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26Environment
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
1. ABhitarkanika Mangroves
2. BChambal River
3. CPulicat Lake
4. DDeepor Beel
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The best place to see Gharials in their natural habitat is the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary.
The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary is a tri-state protected area in northern India spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. It is one of the dedicated sanctuaries for Gharials, the critically endangered fish-eating crocodiles.
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27Indian Polity
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Which of the above-given statements is correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is correct: The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made).
Statement 2 is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President.
Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President's Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions.
Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected.
Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.
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28Indian Economy
Consider the following statements: 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is Correct: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established to facilitate retail payments and promote financial inclusion in India. They achieve this by 1. Developing and deploying innovative payment infrastructure like RuPay cards, UPI, etc. 2. Enabling participation of a wider range of players in the payments system, including non-bank entities. 3. Setting standards and guidelines to ensure secure and efficient electronic payments.
Statement 2 is Correct: RuPay is a domestic debit and credit card payment network launched by NPCI in India. It provides an alternative to international card networks like Visa and Mastercard. This domestic network can potentially lower transaction costs for merchants and banks compared to international schemes.
Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
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29Art & Culture
With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1, 2 and 3.
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is correct. Manipuri Sankirtana is a vibrant performance art that combines singing, dancing, and drumming.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While cymbals are used, Manipuri Sankirtana incorporates other instruments like the Pung (hand-beaten drum), Pena (string instrument), and harmonium.
Statement 3 is correct. A core aspect of Manipuri Sankirtana is narrating stories and themes from Hinduism, particularly those related to Lord Krishna.
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30Environment
Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants was launched by a joint effort of 1. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 2. Six countries Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is not a unique initiative of the G20 group of countries. While some G20 members were involved in its launch, the CCAC has grown into a broader coalition that includes over 160 governments, intergovernmental organisations, and non-governmental organisations.
Statement 2 is correct. The CCAC's primary focus is indeed on reducing emissions of potent short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs). These include Methane (CH4), Black Carbon (BC) and Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
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31Indian Polity
Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the winning candidate is the one who receives the highest number of votes, which is also known as the first-past-the-post system. There is no requirement for the winning candidate to secure at least 50% of the votes polled.
The statement 2 is also incorrect. The Constitution of India does not mandate that the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's post goes to the Opposition. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.
Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.
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32Indian Economy
Which of the following is the most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)'?
1. AMobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
2. BDigital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
3. CFDI inflows will drastically increase.
4. DDirect transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement (a) is correct: UPI enables direct bank-to-bank transfers through mobile apps, removing the need for intermediate mobile wallets.
Statement (b) is incorrect: UPI promotes digital transactions, but it will not completely replace physical currency in the near future.
Statement (c) is incorrect: UPI deals with domestic payment systems and has no direct impact on FDI inflows.
Statement (d) is incorrect: Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) uses Aadhaar-linked bank accounts, not UPI, as the main mechanism for subsidy distribution.
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33International Relations
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
1. AIndia's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
2. BIndia's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
3. CIndia will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
4. DPakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The development of Chabahar Port in Iran is strategically significant for India because it provides a dedicated sea-land transit route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan. Historically, Pakistan has restricted India's land access to these regions. By using Chabahar, located on the Gulf of Oman in southeastern Iran, India can ship goods to the port and then transport them via road and rail networks (such as the Zaranj-Delaram highway) into Afghanistan and the broader Central Asian region. This connectivity was formalized through a trilateral transit agreement between India, Iran, and Afghanistan in 2016, ensuring India is no longer dependent on Pakistani territory for trade with these landlocked areas.
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34History
In the context of Indian history, the principle of "Dyarchy (diarchy)" refers to -
1. ADivision of the central legislature into two houses.
2. BIntroduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
3. CHaving two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
4. DDivision of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The principle of Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919 in the provinces of British India.
This system divided the functions of government into two categories central and provincial.
The provincial subjects were further subdivided into transferred and reserved.
Thus, the principle of Dyarchy refers to the division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
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35Art & Culture
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were not sects of Jainism but rather were Buddhist philosophical schools. Sautrantika was a Buddhist philosophical school that relied primarily on the sutras (discourses) of the Buddha, as opposed to the Abhidharma (the Buddhist systematic philosophy). Sammitiya was a Buddhist school that held the view that the self (atman) exists, which was in contrast to the mainstream Buddhist view of anatta (non-self).
Statement 2 is correct. Sarvastivada was a major Buddhist philosophical school that held the view of "sarvam asti" or "everything exists". The Sarvastivadins believed that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) did not merely exist in the present moment, but had a real and permanent existence in the past, present, and future. This was in contrast to the Theravada Buddhist view of momentariness, where all phenomena are considered to be constantly arising and passing away.
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36Indian Economy
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is Correct: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are niche banks specifically designed to cater to the underserved and unbanked sections of the population, including small businesses, marginal farmers, and micro-industries.
Statement 2 is Correct: SFBs focus on financial inclusion by providing credit facilities to small businesses and marginal farmers.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: In conclusion, While SFBs might indirectly contribute to rural development by providing credit to small businesses in rural areas, their primary objective is not explicitly to encourage young entrepreneurs to set up businesses there (option 3).
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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37Indian Polity
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
1. AEqual pay for equal work for both men and women
2. BParticipation of workers in management of industries
3. CRight to work, education and public assistance
4. DSecuring living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
* Article 43A of the Indian Constitution pertains to the "Participation of workers in the management of industries" and is a part of Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
* It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to promote industrial democracy by ensuring that workers have a role in decision-making within industries.
* This provision aligns with the broader goal of economic justice and socialistic principles, as envisioned in the Directive Principles, by advocating for worker participation in industrial management.
* Thus, Article 43A emphasizes the importance of participatory management in industries to promote industrial harmony and economic democracy.
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38Indian Polity
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties, enshrined in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution, are non-justiciable. The Constitution itself does not provide any specific "legislative process" for their enforcement. While Parliament has the authority to enact separate statutes to penalize certain behaviors (such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971), there is no inherent enforcement mechanism or process defined within the constitutional text for these duties.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are essentially a moral and civic code for citizens and are not considered "correlative" to legal duties in a strict legal-technical sense. Legal duties are specific obligations created by statutory law that carry distinct legal penalties for non-compliance. In contrast, Fundamental Duties are broad principles intended to guide the conduct of citizens and do not have a direct, binding correlation with the legal duties defined in various acts of Parliament.
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39Indian Society
With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. Learners can acquire competency certification through various learning methods under NSQF, not just formal learning. This includes.
- Formal learning (schools, colleges, training institutions) - Non-formal learning (workshops, skill development programs) - Informal learning (on-the-job experience, self-learning)
Statement 2 is correct. One of the key objectives of NSQF is to promote mobility between vocational and general education. The framework establishes a common standard for skills, making it easier for individuals with vocational qualifications to pursue further education or vice versa. This can create a more flexible and inclusive education system.
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40Science & Technology
Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: The Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is the same mosquito that transmits the dengue virus in tropical and subtropical regions.
![Zika Virus](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//zika_virus_655965127f.PNG)
Statement 2 is correct: While Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquito bites, the virus can also be transmitted from person to person through sexual contact.
Therefore, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
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41International Relations
Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nuclear Security Summits were not held under the UN. They were a series of international conferences initiated by the United States in 2010, outside of any formal international organisation. The summits brought together world leaders to discuss ways to secure nuclear materials and prevent nuclear proliferation. However, the summits haven't been held since 2016.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of arms control and non-proliferation experts. It's not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). While the IAEA might collaborate with the IPFM on some issues, it's a separate entity.
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42Environment
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Bioremediation is a technique that utilizes living organisms, primarily microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, to remove or neutralize contaminants from polluted environments. It essentially harnesses and accelerates natural biodegradation processes for environmental cleanup.
Statement 1 (correct): This accurately describes a key advantage of bioremediation. It leverages and accelerates natural biodegradation processes by introducing suitable microorganisms or optimizing environmental conditions.
Statement 2 (incorrect): Bioremediation can be effective for many contaminants but not all. Heavy metals like cadmium and lead are often not readily broken down or removed completely. They might be transformed or immobilized, but not necessarily eliminated.
Statement 3 (correct): Genetic engineering offers a promising approach for developing microorganisms with enhanced capabilities for bioremediation. These engineered microbes can target specific pollutants or work more efficiently in challenging environments.
![Bioremediation](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//bioremediation_c466215d2f.JPG)
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43Science & Technology
What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) Technology?
1. AProduction of biolarvicides
2. BManufacture of biodegradable plastics
3. CReproductive cloning of animals
4. DProduction of organisms free of diseases
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) technology is primarily used for the purpose of reproductive cloning of animals.
![SCNT](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//somatic_cell_2552f394bf.png)
SCNT can be used to create genetically identical copies of animals. This involves transferring the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell into an egg cell that has had its own nucleus removed. The egg cell is then stimulated to divide and develop into an embryo, which is then implanted into a surrogate mother to produce a cloned individual. This technique is called reproductive cloning.
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44International Relations
Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
1. AEuropean Union
2. BGulf Cooperation Council
3. COrganization for Economic Cooperation and Development
4. DShanghai Cooperation Organization
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is a comprehensive free trade agreement being negotiated between India and the European Union (EU). Negotiations were initiated in June 2007 and cover a wide range of sectors including trade in goods, trade in services, and investment. The agreement aims to increase bilateral trade by removing 90% of tariffs and addressing non-tariff barriers, though negotiations have faced delays over issues like market access for automobiles, spirits, and the movement of professionals (Mode 4).
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45Environment
Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
1. ACorbett National Park
2. BSariska National Park
3. CMudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
4. DKuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
An environment ministry's expert committee approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir National Park. However, the Gujarat government will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by the International Wildlife Watchdog IUCN is completed.
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46Indian Economy
The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to -
1. AASEAN
2. BBRICS
3. CEU
4. DG20
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The Digital Single Market Strategy refers to an initiative by the European Union (EU) that aims to create a unified digital market across all member states.
Overall, the Digital Single Market Strategy aims to stimulate growth in the European digital economy by fostering innovation, competition, and consumer confidence in the online marketplace.
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47History
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for -
1. Athe participation of workers in the management of industries.
2. Barbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
3. Can intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
4. Da system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted to provide a mechanism for the settlement of industrial disputes. It established a system of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation (tribunals) to investigate and mediate conflicts between employers and employees. Regarding strikes, the Act imposed significant restrictions: it prohibited strikes and lock-outs in public utility services (such as railways, post, and water supply) without a 14-day prior notice. Additionally, it declared illegal any strike or lock-out that had objectives other than the furtherance of a trade dispute within a specific industry or was intended to coerce the government through widespread public hardship. This effectively banned general and political strikes.
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48Indian Economy
With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is Correct: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is a pioneering experiment of the Government of India in setting up organisations in partnership with the Indian industry.
Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.
The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI.QCI is governed by a Council of 38 members including the Chairman and Secretary General.
Statement 2 is Correct: The chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government.
Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.
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49International Relations
Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The trade facilitation decision is a multilateral deal to simplify customs procedures by reducing costs and improving their speed and efficiency.
Statement 1 is correct. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO. This signifies India's official acceptance and implementation of the agreement's provisions.
Statement 2 is correct. The TFA is indeed a part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. This package refers to a collection of agreements reached during the Ninth Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization in Bali, Indonesia. The TFA was a landmark achievement within this package.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) came into force in February 2017, not January 2016. It required ratification by two-thirds of WTO members before taking effect.
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50History
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?
1. ADefine the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
2. BDefine the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
3. CImpose censorship on national press.
4. DImprove the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
A three-member committee headed by Harcourt Butler, appointed on December 16, 1927, aimed to examine the relations between the native states and the paramount power, and to improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States. It clearly stated that paramountcy must remain paramount.
The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy should remain the Crown agent in dealing with the native states.
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51Indian Polity
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
1. AAn arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
2. BA mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
3. CA mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
4. DA device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The Cabinet form of Government is a fundamental feature of a parliamentary system, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature. This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Key Aspects of Collective Responsibility: - Decisions of the Cabinet are binding on all ministers and even if they personally disagree, they must publicly support them. - If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign. - This ensures accountability, transparency, and democratic control, preventing arbitrary rule by the executive.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
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52Indian Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tax revenue as a percent of GDP in India has not steadily increased over the last decade. It has fluctuated — for instance, it rose during periods of strong economic growth but fell during years like 2019–20 and 2020–21 (due to slowdown and the pandemic). Hence, the trend is not steadily upward.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP has also not steadily increased. It narrowed from around 4.5% in 2013–14 to about 3.4% in 2018–19, then spiked during the COVID-19 years (to around 9.2% in 2020–21) and has gradually declined since. Thus, there has been no steady increase over the decade.
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53Environment
With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is correct: The GCCA was established by the European Union to enhance climate cooperation with developing nations, particularly Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
Statement 2 is correct: A core objective of the GCCA is to provide technical and financial assistance to developing countries, helping them integrate climate change adaptation and mitigation into their national policies, development strategies, and budgets.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The GCCA is coordinated by the European Commission through its established political dialogue and cooperation mechanisms. It is not managed by the World Resources Institute (WRI) or the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
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54Indian Geography
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
1. A6
2. B7
3. C8
4. D9
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
To travel from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) by road, the minimum number of states one must pass through is 7. The most direct route follows this sequence:
1. Nagaland (Origin: Kohima) 2. Assam (Necessary to connect from Nagaland to mainland India) 3. West Bengal (Must pass through the Siliguri Corridor) 4. Odisha 5. Andhra Pradesh 6. Tamil Nadu (or Karnataka) 7. Kerala (Destination: Kottayam)
To reach Kerala from Andhra Pradesh by road, one must pass through either Tamil Nadu or Karnataka. Therefore, the total count including the origin and destination states is 7.
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55World Geography
Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
1. ASumatra
2. BBorneo
3. CJava
4. DSri Lanka
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Sumatra is the geographically closest island to Great Nicobar, separated by the Great Channel (also known as the Six Degree Channel). The distance between the southernmost point of Great Nicobar and the northern tip of Sumatra (Aceh province, Indonesia) is approximately 145–150 km.
In contrast, Sri Lanka is located about 1,200 km to the west of the Nicobar Islands. Java is located to the southeast of Sumatra, and Borneo is situated much further east in the Malay Archipelago, making both significantly more distant from Great Nicobar than Sumatra.
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56Indian Society
'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
1. ACertifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
2. BEnrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
3. CReserving some skilled jobs to the rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
4. DCertifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
* The Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme (RPL) is often mentioned in the news with reference to skill development initiatives in India.
* Target Audience: RPL focuses on individuals who possess skills and knowledge gained through work experience, informal training, or other non-formal learning avenues. These skills might not be formally documented through traditional educational certificates. * Process and Benefits: RPL provides a process for assessing the existing skills and knowledge of individuals. If their skills match the requirements of a specific job role or qualification, they can receive a formal certification without necessarily undergoing the entire formal training program.
* RPL is implemented under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
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57Indian Geography
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier and Tso Lhamo Lake in North Sikkim. In contrast, the Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier (or Chemayungdung Glacier) in the Kailash range of Tibet. Therefore, their sources are not the same.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Rangeet River originates from the Rathong Glacier in West Sikkim. It is the largest tributary of the Teesta River and joins it at Melli, near the border of Sikkim and West Bengal.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: After flowing through Sikkim and West Bengal, the Teesta enters Bangladesh and joins the Brahmaputra River (known as the Jamuna in Bangladesh) at Fulchhari. It does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal, nor does it reach the sea on the India-Bangladesh border.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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58Art & Culture
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is Correct: Arasavalli, located in the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, is home to the famous Sun Temple (Suryanarayana Temple). It was built in the 7th century AD by King Devendra Varma of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is designed such that the sun's rays fall on the feet of the deity twice a year.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Amarakantak in Madhya Pradesh is a significant pilgrimage site known as the source of the Narmada, Son, and Johila rivers. While it houses several ancient temples built by the Kalachuri dynasty (such as the Narmada Udgam Temple), it is not famous for a Sun temple.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Omkareshwar, located on the Mandhata island in the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh, is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is a major Shaivite pilgrimage center and does not host a famous Sun temple.
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59Science & Technology
Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create the digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 only
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. DNone of the above statements is correct
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) is a light-emitting diode (LED) in which the emissive electroluminescent layer is a film of organic compound that emits light in response to an electric current.
Statement 1 is correct: One of the key advantages of OLED technology is that the organic light-emitting materials can be deposited on flexible plastic or metal foil substrates, enabling the creation of flexible and foldable displays.
Statement 2 is correct: The flexibility of OLED displays allows for the creation of roll-up or rollable displays, which can be integrated into clothing and other flexible surfaces.
Statement 3 is correct: OLED display technology can be used to create transparent displays, where the light-emitting pixels can be made semi-transparent, allowing the display to be integrated into various surfaces and objects.
Therefore, all three statements are correct.
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60Indian Economy
What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is Correct: Goods and Service Tax (GST) replaces multiple indirect taxes levied by central and state governments, creating a unified market. This can simplify tax compliance and potentially reduce the cost of goods and services for consumers.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: While GST can improve efficiency in tax collection, it's not a direct solution to the current account deficit, which is influenced by factors like trade balance and foreign investment.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The impact of GST on economic growth is complex and depends on various other factors. It's unlikely to solely propel India's economy to overtake China's in the near future. Therefore, the most likely advantage of GST is 1 only.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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61Indian Polity
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that -
1. AThe executive and legislature work independently.
2. BIt provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
3. CThe executive remains responsible to the legislature.
4. DThe head of the government cannot be changed without the election.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The parliamentary system is fundamentally characterized by the principle of collective responsibility. According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the legislature). This ensures that the executive remains accountable to the elected representatives and can only stay in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the legislature. In contrast, the separation of powers where the executive and legislature work independently (Option A) and the continuity of policy due to a fixed tenure (Option B) are primary features of a Presidential system. Furthermore, in a parliamentary system, the head of government can be replaced through a vote of no confidence or a change in party leadership without necessitating a general election (Option D).
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62Indian Polity
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 4 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C1 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The Right against Exploitation under the Indian Constitution aims to protect individuals from forced labor, human trafficking, and child exploitation.
It specifically includes: - Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor (Article 23): This article bans begar (forced, unpaid labor), bonded labor, and human trafficking in any form. It also prohibits the state and private entities from compelling people to work without fair wages. - Prohibition of child labor in hazardous occupations (Article 24): This article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations to ensure their safety and well-being.
While other rights are crucial, they are not part of the Right against Exploitation: - Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) falls under the Right to Equality and prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form. - Protection of the interests of minorities is covered under Articles 25-30 and primarily falls under the Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural & Educational Rights.
Thus, the Right against Exploitation focuses specifically on preventing forced labor, human trafficking, and child labor, ensuring dignity and freedom from exploitation
Therefore, the correct option is (C) 1 and 4 only.
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63Indian Polity
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. Legislative function. 2. Executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are positive instructions and fundamental principles for governance rather than legal limitations or prohibitions on the legislative powers of the State. Statement 2 is Incorrect: DPSPs are non-justiciable under Article 37, meaning they do not act as constitutional limitations on executive functions; instead, they serve as guiding goals for the executive to achieve through policy-making and administration.
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64Environment
Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: Reduced or zero tillage of the land minimises soil disturbance, promoting better water retention. Less disturbed soil creates a more compact surface that reduces evaporation and allows rainwater to infiltrate deeper into the ground.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Applying gypsum before irrigating the field Gypsum (calcium sulfate) is a soil amendment that can improve soil structure and drainage in some situations. However, it doesn't directly conserve water. In some cases, excessive gypsum application might even increase the leaching of nutrients and salts.
Statement 3 is correct: Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Leaving crop residue on the soil surface acts like a mulch. This mulch helps suppress weeds, reduces soil erosion, and minimises water evaporation from the soil surface.
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65Indian Polity
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Private member's bills are introduced by Members of Parliament (MPs) who are not ministers i.e., they do not hold any position in the government. These bills allow non-ministerial MPs to propose legislative changes, reflecting their views or those of their political parties on important issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the passage rate of private member's bills is very low, it is not true that no such bill has ever been passed in recent times. Since 1952, a total of 14 private member's bills have been passed by Parliament. One of the most notable examples is the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1970, which was successfully enacted. However, the majority of private member's bills fail to become law due to a lack of government backing, time constraints, or procedural hurdles.
Hence, the correct answer is option (D) neither 1 nor 2.
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66Indian Polity
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through - 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through various parliamentary mechanisms, ensuring accountability and transparency in governance. These include:
* Adjournment Motion: This motion is used to discuss a specific and urgent matter of public importance. If admitted, it compels the government to respond and can lead to debate, criticism, or even censure, putting the ruling party in a difficult position.
* Question Hour: Held at the beginning of a parliamentary sitting, MPs can question ministers on government policies, decisions, and administrative matters. This provides a structured way to scrutinize the executive's performance.
* Supplementary Questions: After a minister responds to a question during Question Hour, MPs can ask follow-up questions to seek further clarification or probe deeper into the issue, enhancing ministerial accountability.
Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2 and 3.
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67Indian Polity
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
1. ALiberty of thought
2. BEconomic liberty
3. CLiberty of expression
4. DLiberty of belief
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution guarantees justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, but economic liberty is not explicitly mentioned. It specifically ensures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, but does not directly state economic freedom.
However, various constitutional provisions, such as those related to Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), promote economic activities and social justice, indirectly contributing to economic freedom. Yet, since economic liberty is not explicitly stated in the Preamble, it is not one of the guaranteed liberties under it.
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68Indian Polity
Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. ARights are claims of the State against the citizens.
2. BRights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
3. CRights are claims of the citizens against the State.
4. DRights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Option A is incorrect: The state does not claim rights against citizens; rather, it is responsible for enforcing and upholding them. Rights are meant to protect individuals from arbitrary state action and ensure their freedoms.
Option B is incorrect: While some rights are enshrined in the Constitution, privileges and rights are not the same. Rights are fundamental entitlements guaranteed to all citizens, whereas privileges are special advantages that can be granted or revoked by the state.
Option C is Correct: Rights are claims of citizens against the State. They empower individuals to expect specific actions or non-actions from the state, ensuring protection of freedoms and access to essential services. The state has a duty to respect, protect, and fulfill these rights.
Option D is incorrect: Rights are not privileges granted to a few but universal entitlements that apply to all citizens. The idea that rights belong only to a select group contradicts the fundamental principle of equality enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
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69History
Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Lord Cornwallis was associated with the introduction of the Permanent Settlement (also known as the Zamindari System) in Bengal and Bihar in 1793. Statement 2 is Correct: Captain Alexander Read first introduced the Ryotwari system on a small scale in the Baramahal district (Madras Presidency) in 1792 after the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Statement 3 is Correct: Thomas Munro, who later became the Governor of Madras (1820–1827), is considered the primary architect of the system as he refined and extended it across most of the Madras Presidency.
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70Environment
Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: Butterflies are vital pollinators for many flowering plants. A decline in their population can lead to reduced pollination success, affecting fruit and seed production. This, in turn, can disrupt plant communities that rely on butterflies for pollination, potentially impacting entire ecosystems.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While some butterfly species may interact with fungi, a decline in butterfly populations is unlikely to cause a drastic increase in fungal infections on cultivated plants. Factors like humidity, temperature, plant health, and fungicide use play a far more significant role in the spread of fungal diseases than butterfly populations.
Statement 3 is correct: Butterflies are an essential part of the food web, serving as prey for wasps, spiders, birds, and other insectivorous species. A sharp decline in butterfly populations could negatively impact these predators, disrupting the ecological balance and potentially leading to cascading effects on biodiversity.
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71Indian Geography
Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. The Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Himalayas stretch across several states in northern and northeastern India, including Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Assam and West Bengal.
![Spread of Himalayas](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//spread_of_himalayas_0badbd7f27.png)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Western Ghats encompass six states in western India Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
![Western Ghats](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//WG_5c8cb6477d.png)
Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India, situated on the Coromandel Coast. It is shared by Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Distribution: Roughly 84% of the lake lies in the Tirupati district (formerly Nellore) of Andhra Pradesh, and about 16% lies in the Tiruvallur district of Tamil Nadu.
![Pulicat Lake](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Pulicat_9255fc6bc3.png)
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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72Indian Polity
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by -
1. AAnyone residing in India.
2. BA resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
3. CAny citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
4. DAny citizen of India.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
To contest elections for the Lok Sabha, a candidate must fulfill the following constitutional requirements: - Must be a citizen of India. - Must be at least 25 years old. - Must be a registered voter in any parliamentary constituency.
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73Indian Economy
Consider the following statements : The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Out of the listed statements about the Soil Health Card Scheme :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation is not a primary objective of the scheme.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Banks don't directly use soil cards to assess loan quantum. Loan approvals depend on various factors like land ownership, crop type, and credit history.
Statement 3 is Correct: A key objective of the scheme is to promote the judicious use of fertilisers. By informing farmers about their soil's nutrient status, the scheme encourages them to apply only the required amount of fertilisers, reducing overuse and potential environmental damage.
Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only (checking the overuse of fertilisers in farmlands).Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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74Science & Technology
Consider the following pairs: Commonly used/consumed materials and Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick: Lead 2. Soft drinks: Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food: Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Pair 1 is correct: Lead is a heavy metal that has been found in some lipstick formulations, which is concerning due to its potential toxic effects.
Pair 2 is correct: Brominated vegetable oils (BVOs) are a type of food additive used in some soft drinks to help distribute flavours. BVOs have been controversial and banned in many countries due to potential health concerns.
Pair 3 is correct: Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavour enhancer commonly used in Chinese and other Asian cuisines, including fast food. There have been concerns about the potential side effects of MSG consumption.
Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.
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75Environment
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
All three options (1, 2, and 3) can be potential sites for carbon sequestration
Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams: These underground coal mines already have existing rock formations suitable for storing carbon dioxide. Since they are no longer operational, they can be repurposed for CO2 storage, potentially with the added benefit of enhancing methane capture from abandoned mines.
Depleted oil and gas reservoirs: Once oil and gas reserves are depleted, they still have porous rock structures that can trap injected carbon dioxide. Repurposing these reservoirs for carbon storage leverages existing infrastructure and reduces the need for drilling new wells.
Subterranean deep saline formations: Deep saline formations are layers of rock saturated with briny water, far below freshwater resources. Their geological properties allow for the storage of large volumes of carbon dioxide with minimal risk of leakage or contamination of freshwater sources.
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76Indian Economy
Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?
1. AIt is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
2. BIt is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
3. CIt is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
4. DIt is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
A scheme was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 13 June 2016, named Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A Scheme) for addressing the large stressed assets of the corporate sector with banks.
The S4A Scheme aims at the deep financial restructuring of big debted projects by allowing lenders (banks) to acquire equity of the stressed project.
In this context, the scheme makes the financial restructuring of large projects at the same time helping the lender's ability to deal with such stressed assets. It is intended to restore the flow of credit to critical sectors including infrastructure.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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77Science & Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 only
3. C3 only
4. D2 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is not a scheme for developing Smart Cities. Instead, it is a nationwide initiative aimed at identifying innovative digital technology solutions to solve real-world challenges across various sectors.
Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India launched the Smart India Hackathon to encourage students and professionals to develop innovative digital solutions for challenges in agriculture, health, education, energy, environment, and other domains. It serves as a platform for young minds to engage in problem-solving and contribute to technological advancements.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the hackathon focuses on digital technology innovations, it is not specifically centered on digital financial transactions. Instead, it covers a wide range of sectors where technology can drive efficiency and innovation.
Hence, correct answer is option (B).
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78Art & Culture
Consider the following pairs: | Tradition | Communities | |-----------------------------|-------------| | 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival | Sindhis | | 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra | Gonds | | 3. Wari-Warkari | Santhals | Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. DNone of the above
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Pair 1 is correct: Chalio / Chaliho also called Chaliho Sahib is a forty-day-long festival celebrated by Hindu Sindhi community.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - While the Nanda Devi Raj Jaat Yatra is a festival celebrated in Uttarakhand, it's not primarily associated with the Gond community. The Gonds are an indigenous tribe spread across central India.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Wari-Warkari - The Wari-Warkari tradition and pilgrimage are associated with the Marathi community of Maharashtra, particularly devotees of the Hindu god Vitthal. The Santhals are an indigenous tribe inhabiting parts of eastern India.
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79Indian Economy
With reference to 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is Correct: The National IPR Policy does reiterate India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement). The Doha Development Agenda aimed to clarify and improve specific aspects of the TRIPS Agreement, particularly focusing on flexibilities for developing countries. India, as a developing nation, is entitled to certain flexibilities in implementing the TRIPS Agreement, such as using compulsory licensing to ensure access to affordable medicines.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for the development and implementation of IPR policy in India, earlier its name was the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
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80Indian Polity
Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D3 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not a five-member body. It is a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs). However, it originally started as a single-member body in 1950 and became a multi-member commission in 1993.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is solely responsible for determining the schedule of general elections and bye-elections. It exercises this power under Article 324 of the Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections in the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India has the authority to resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties. It decides which faction of a party is the legitimate one and, if necessary, allocates party symbols accordingly, based on precedents and internal party strength.
Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 3 only.
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81Indian Geography
With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Indian Ocean. The comparison involving the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean refers to the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon, not the IOD.
Statement 2 is Correct: The IOD can significantly influence the impact of El Niño on the Indian monsoon. A positive IOD often compensates for the deficit rainfall usually associated with El Niño, while a negative IOD can exacerbate the drought conditions caused by El Niño. These two climate patterns interact to determine the overall strength of the monsoon.
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82History
With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: The Rigvedic Aryans were a warrior-led society and used protective equipment like the 'varman' (coat of mail) and helmets in warfare. In contrast, the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) was primarily a peaceful, urban commercial society; archaeological excavations have yielded no conclusive evidence of armor or specialized military gear.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indus Valley people were part of a Bronze Age civilization and were well-acquainted with gold, silver, copper, and bronze. However, they were not aware of iron. Iron technology appeared in the Indian subcontinent much later, during the later Vedic period (c. 1000 BCE).
Statement 3 is correct: The horse played a central role in the culture and mobility of the Rigvedic Aryans, with numerous mentions in the Rigveda. While some animal remains have been debated at sites like Surkotada, there is no clear, widespread evidence that the Indus Valley people domesticated or were significantly aware of the horse.
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83Science & Technology
The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', `String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
1. AObservation and understanding of the Universe
2. BStudy of the solar and the lunar eclipses
3. CPlacing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
4. DOrigin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
* The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are associated with the observation and understanding of the Universe, particularly in the field of cosmology and astrophysics.
* Event Horizon refers to the boundary around a black hole, beyond which nothing, not even light, can escape the black hole's gravitational pull.
* Singularity refers to a point in spacetime where the gravitational field becomes infinite, such as at the center of a black hole, where the laws of physics as we know them break down.
* String Theory is a theoretical framework in particle physics that attempts to unify all the fundamental forces of nature, including gravity, into a single coherent model.
* Standard Model is the most comprehensive and well-tested theory in particle physics, which describes the fundamental particles and their interactions, except for gravity.
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84Art & Culture
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at -
1. AAjanta
2. BBadami
3. CBagh
4. DEllora
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
* The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated works of art found in the Ajanta Caves.
![Bodhisattwa Padmapani](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//bodhisattwa_padmapani_189488bd17.PNG)
* These caves, located in Maharashtra, India, are renowned for their collection of exquisitely preserved murals and sculptures depicting Buddhist themes. The Padmapani painting, housed in Cave 1, is particularly celebrated for its beauty, technical mastery, and its portrayal of the compassionate Bodhisattva. This image has been admired and reproduced for centuries, serving as a testament to the artistic legacy of Ajanta.
* Badami is famous for its rock-cut temples (6th–8th century CE), built by the Chalukyas.
* Bagh Caves (Madhya Pradesh): Madhyapradesh. These are associated with the Buddhism. These Buddhist rock-cut caves have paintings similar to Ajanta.
* Ellora is famous for its rock-cut Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain temples (6th–10th century CE). The most famous structure here is the Kailasa Temple (Cave 16), a massive monolithic rock-cut temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
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85International Relations
With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements: 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
APMCHUD is an intergovernmental mechanism for collaboration and cooperation in the field of housing and development among Asia Pacific countries.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 1st APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India from 13th-16th December 2006 on the theme of A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Conference of APMCHUD is a biennial event . This event is hosted by one of the member countries whose offer is consented to by the members in the previous conference of the APMCHUD.
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86Indian Polity
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
1. ARights are correlative with Duties.
2. BRights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
3. CRights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
4. DDuties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
In the Indian context, Rights and Duties are correlative, meaning they are interdependent and go hand in hand. The Indian Constitution provides for both:
- Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) ensure individual freedoms and protect citizens from arbitrary state action. - Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) outline the moral and civic responsibilities of citizens toward the nation and society.
Interrelation Between Rights and Duties: - Rights cannot be exercised in isolation; they must be balanced with duties. For example, the Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19) is linked to the duty to respect the dignity and rights of others (Article 51A(e): Duty to promote harmony and spirit of brotherhood).
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87Indian Society
Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1, 2 and 3 only
3. C1, 2 and 4 only
4. D3 and 4 only
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The National Nutrition Mission, also known as Poshan Abhiyaan, has several objectives. - The first objective is to create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. - The second objective is to reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. These two objectives are clearly stated in the mission's goals. Hence, statements 1 & 2 are correct.
However, the promotion of the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice, and the promotion of the consumption of poultry eggs are not explicitly stated as objectives of the mission. Hence, statement 3 & 4 are incorrect.
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88History
Consider the following statements: 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Factories Act of 1881 did not address worker wages or the formation of trade unions. Its primary focus was on improving working conditions, especially for children. It limited working hours for children, prohibited child labour under a certain age, and mandated breaks during the workday.
Statement 2 is correct. N.M. Lokhande is indeed considered a pioneer of the labour movement in British India. He actively campaigned for better working conditions and worker rights.
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89Indian Polity
Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
1. AThe intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
2. BThe methods for strengthening executive leadership.
3. CA superior individual with dynamism and vision.
4. DA band of dedicated party workers.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
* The superior virtue of democracy lies in "the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women."
* Democracy is built on citizen participation, where people are not just passive subjects but active contributors to governance. It assumes that the collective wisdom of the people (when informed and engaged) can lead to better decision-making and promote the welfare of society.
* While strong leadership and dedicated party workers play a role, democracy fundamentally empowers the citizenry, ensuring that governance is shaped by the will and values of the people rather than a select few.
* Thus, the true strength of democracy lies in the intelligence, awareness, and character of its citizens, who drive the system through participation and informed choices.
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90Indian Society
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
1. AResident Indian citizens only
2. BPersons of age from 21 to 55 only
3. CAll State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
4. DAll Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The National Pension System (NPS) was introduced by the Central Government for its employees (excluding the Armed Forces) effective from January 1, 2004.
Why Option C is correct: Following the Central Government's implementation, various State Governments adopted the NPS architecture for their own employees. The scheme becomes applicable to State Government employees based on the specific date of notification issued by their respective State Governments.
Analysis of other options: - Option A is incorrect: NPS is open to all Indian citizens, including both Resident Indians and Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). - Option B is incorrect: The eligibility age for joining NPS is 18 to 70 years (it was 18 to 60 years at the time of the scheme's launch). - Option D is incorrect: The NPS specifically excludes the Armed Forces. Furthermore, the implementation date for Central Government employees was January 1, 2004, not April 1, 2004.
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91Environment
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild Buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Gharial: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Schedule I includes species with the highest protection, prohibiting hunting entirely except under exceptional circumstances like disease control or to prevent human attacks. Therefore, hunting Gharial is illegal.
![Crocodile Species](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//crocodiles_8709ba0bcf.PNG)
Indian wild ass: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Similar to Gharial, hunting the Indian wild ass is also prohibited.
Wild Buffalo: Listed in Schedule I of the Indian WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, Wild Buffalo cannot be hunted.
_Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972 underwent amendments in 2022, which impacted the scheduling of wild animals._ _Previously, there were six schedules. The amendment streamlined them into four schedules._
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92Indian Economy
The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to -
1. ADeveloping solar power production in our country
2. BGranting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
3. CExporting our food products to other countries
4. DPermitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) is a policy tool used by governments to encourage local industries to grow and reduce dependence on imports. In the context of solar power production, DCR mandates that a certain percentage of solar equipment used in the production process must be domestically produced. This policy is aimed at promoting indigenous manufacturing and reducing dependence on imports.
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93Environment
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for -
1. AMeasuring oxygen levels in the blood
2. BComputing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
3. CPollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
4. DAssessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for assessing the quality of water.
Microbial activity: BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen used by microorganisms (like bacteria) as they decompose organic matter in water.
Pollution indicator: Higher BOD indicates a greater presence of organic matter, often suggesting pollution from sources like sewage, animal waste, or decaying plants.
Aquatic life impact: Excessive organic matter decomposition can deplete oxygen levels in water, harming aquatic life that depends on dissolved oxygen for survival.
Therefore, BOD serves as a valuable tool for monitoring water quality and identifying potential pollution issues.
![BOD vs. COD](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//bod_cod_14c8513e13.PNG)
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94Indian Economy
With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crores at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Statement 1 is Incorrect: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is India's first sovereign wealth fund that was set up by the Government of India in February 2015. The objective behind creating this fund was to maximise economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects, both Greenfield and Brownfield.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: In the Union Budget 2015-16, India's Finance Minister, Arun Jaitley announced the creation of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund. It was proposed to be established as an Alternative Investment Fund to provide long-term capital for infrastructure projects with an inflow of Rs. 20,000 crore from the Government of India. NIIF was approved in August 2015 by the Department of Economic Affairs. The first meeting of its governing council was held in December 2015 further to which it was registered with SEBI as Category II Alternative Investment Fund.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
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95Indian Economy
Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is Correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Standard Mark is indeed mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), an agency of the Government of India, and not by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). The FAO is an international organisation that promotes food security and agricultural development.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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96Indian Polity
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:
1. AFundamental Right
2. BNatural Right
3. CConstitutional Right
4. DLegal Right
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
* The right to vote and to be elected in India is a constitutional right, enshrined in Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
* Article 326 grants the right to vote to every Indian citizen based on universal adult suffrage, ensuring that elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted democratically.
* The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years. This amendment aimed to enhance youth participation in the electoral process and strengthen democratic representation.
* While the right to vote is a constitutional right, it is subject to reasonable restrictions based on factors such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt practices as prescribed by law.
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97Indian Society
Which of the following gives the 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?
1. AWorld Economic Forum
2. BUN Human Rights Council
3. CUN Women
4. DWorld Health Organization
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It benchmarks progress towards gender parity by measuring the gap between women and men across four dimensions: - Economic Participation and Opportunity - Educational Attainment - Health and Survival - Political Empowerment
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98International Relations
Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect. The inaugural IONS was held in February 2008 in New Delhi, India. The Indian Navy served as the Chair for the first two years (2008-2010).
Statement 2 is correct. IONS is indeed a voluntary initiative that aims to promote maritime cooperation among the navies of countries bordering the Indian Ocean. It provides a platform for discussions on regional maritime security issues and fosters friendly relationships between participating nations.
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99History
Consider the following pairs: 1. Radhakanta Deb: First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty: Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee: Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is Correct: The British Indian Association was established in October 1851 in Calcutta by the amalgamation of the Landholders' Society and the Bengal British India Society. Raja Radhakanta Deb was its first President, and Debendranath Tagore was its Secretary.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association in 1852, which was the first organization in the Madras Presidency to lobby for Indian rights. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was established much later, in May 1884, by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Anandacharlu.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Indian Association (also known as the Indian National Association) was founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Anandamohan Bose. It was the most important of the pre-Congress nationalist organizations and aimed to create a strong body of public opinion on political questions.
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100Indian Polity
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
1. AThere is an independent judiciary in India.
2. BPowers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
3. CThe federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
4. DIt is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Indian federalism is characterized by key features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States, and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha, all of which are enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
However, unlike classical federations like the United States, Indian federalism is not the outcome of an agreement among the federating units. The Indian Constitution, which lays down the framework for India's federal structure, was not created through an agreement among the federating units but was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India.
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