UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

MCQ SUBJECT

Indian Polity

237 UPSC Prelims MCQs tagged "Indian Polity". Free practice with answer keys, explanations, and timed mock tests on Anantam IAS.

  1. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the…

    The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People's participation in the development 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralization 4. Financial mobilization Select the correct answer using the code given below

    1. A1, 2 and 3 only
    2. B2 and 4 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Panchayati Raj system is designed to empower rural communities by enabling

    1. People's participation in development: This involves involving villagers in decision-making processes related to local development projects and resource allocation.

    2. Political accountability: This is a desirable outcome, but not the sole purpose. The Panchayati Raj system aims to create a more participatory and democratic structure for rural development.

    3. Democratic decentralization: Power is transferred from the central government to local bodies, allowing communities to address their specific needs and priorities.

    4. Financial mobilization: While financial mobilization can be a consequence, it's not the fundamental objective.

    Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are true.

  2. With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements. 1. The Department of…

    With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements. 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India. 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C2 only
    4. D1, 2, and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget.

    Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Public Accounts include provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on. This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly like banking transactions.

    So, only the second statement is correct.

  3. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India…

    The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -

    1. Aprotect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
    2. Bdetermine the boundaries between states
    3. Cdetermine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
    4. Dprotect the interests of all the border States
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

    Fifth Schedule: Applies to all states except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It focuses on

    Management and administration of Scheduled Areas: These are areas with a high concentration of tribal populations. The schedule grants them some autonomy and safeguards their traditional rights over land and resources.

    Establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils: These councils advise the Governor on matters related to the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes.

    Sixth Schedule: Applies to the four aforementioned northeastern states with significant tribal populations. It provides greater autonomy compared to the Fifth Schedule by

    Creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs): These councils have a greater degree of administrative and legislative power within their designated areas.

    Special provisions for administration of tribal areas: This includes protection of customary law, inheritance practices, and social customs of the tribes.

  4. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

    Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

    1. AThe President of India
    2. BThe Prime Minister of India
    3. CThe Lok Sabha Secretariat
    4. DThe Supreme Court of India
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    A custodian is a person entrusted with the custody or care of something.

    - Whenever Fundamental Rights are denied or restricted, it can be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32; - The dispute between Centre and State can be settled in the Supreme Court under Article 131; - the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts in India under Article 141; - For the enforcement of decrees - Article 142; - President of India consulting Supreme Court under Article 143; - After all, under Article 13, all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void ( Doctrine of Judicial Review). - Supreme Court judgments are the law of the land;

    Based on the above facts, the Supreme Court takes care of the Constitution. So, simply the Supreme Court is the Custodian of the Constitution.

  5. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the…

    When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by:

    1. Aa simple majority of members present and voting
    2. Ba three-fourths majority of members present and voting
    3. Ca two-thirds majority of the House
    4. Dthe absolute majority of the House
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    According to Article 108 of the Constitution of India, if a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses, it is passed by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. This is a simple majority applied to the combined strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

  6. Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?…

    Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1 and 3 only.
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only.
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is correct: Sending a report to the President recommending imposition of President's Rule (Article 356) is a discretionary power of the Governor. The Governor can act independently if they believe the constitutional machinery in the state has failed.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The appointment of Ministers is done by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, not at their discretion (Article 164).

    Statement 3 is correct: The Governor has the discretionary power to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the President's consideration (Article 200).

    Statement 4 is incorrect: The rules for the conduct of business of the State Government are made by the Governor on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 166), not at their discretion.

  7. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 77 of the Constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 53 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Executive power of the Union. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President ( and not the Prime Minister) and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.

  8. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in…

    In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

    1. AThe preamble to the Constitution
    2. BDirective Principles of State Policy DPSP
    3. CFundamental Duties
    4. DNinth Schedule
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Directive Principles of State Policy Article 51. Promotion of international peace and security.

    The State shall endeavour to -

    - promote international peace and security; - maintain just and honourable relations between nations; - foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another; - encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

  9. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding…

    Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

    1. ASecond Schedule
    2. BFifth Schedule
    3. CEighth Schedule
    4. DTenth Schedule
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection.

    The Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was added to the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on the grounds of defection from the political party they were elected under.

  10. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

    Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

    1. AThe Committee on Public Accounts
    2. BThe Committee on Estimates
    3. CThe Committee on Public Undertakings
    4. DThe Committee on Petitions
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The Committee on Estimates is the largest among the options provided and is the largest of the three Financial Committees of the Parliament. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. Notably, the Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.

    Comparison of Committee Sizes:

    * Committee on Estimates: 30 members (All from Lok Sabha). * Committee on Public Accounts: 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). * Committee on Public Undertakings: 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). * Committee on Petitions: The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee consists of 10 members.

    While Department-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) created in 1993 have 31 members, the Committee on Estimates remains the largest committee of the Lok Sabha and the largest among the specific choices listed in the question.

  11. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of…

    Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet meetings and circulation of papers related to Cabinet discussions.

    Statement 2 is correct: It provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees and ensures implementation of Cabinet decisions through coordination among ministries.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretariat does not allocate financial resources — that function is performed by the Ministry of Finance through the Budget Division and related departments.

  12. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre…

    The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

    1. Aadvisory jurisdiction
    2. Bappellate jurisdiction.
    3. Coriginal jurisdiction
    4. Dwrit jurisdiction
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.

  13. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India…

    The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

    1. Athe President of India
    2. Bthe Parliament
    3. Cthe Chief Justice of India
    4. Dthe Law Commission
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    According to article 124(1), There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than thirty-three other Judges. Thus, the Constitution vests the authority to increase the number of Judges in the Parliament.

  14. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which – 1. Places effective…

    Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which - 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution protects individual rights and liberties from the government's overreach.

    Statement 2 is correct: A core principle of a constitutional government is limited government. This means the government's power is not absolute and is restricted by a constitution.

    Thus, statement one is incorrect and statement two is correct.

  15. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the…

    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

    1. AFundamental Rights
    2. BFundamental Duties
    3. CDirective Principles of State Policy
    4. DFundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Article 37 The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

    As article 37 is part of DPSP, thus correct answer is 'C'.

  16. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

    1. AThe Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
    2. BThe Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
    3. CThe Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
    4. DThe President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Lok Sabha (Lower House) has the final say in the matter of Money Bill. Here's the process: - The Money Bill originates in the Lok Sabha. - The Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill. - The Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Bill and recommend amendments within 14 days.

    Two scenarios can occur 1. Rajya Sabha returns the Bill without recommendations or with recommendations accepted by the Lok Sabha. The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in its original or amended form. 2. Rajya Sabha recommends amendments that the Lok Sabha disagrees with (substantial amendments). The Lok Sabha can either accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha or reject them.

    If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha (original form). Essentially, the Rajya Sabha's power to amend a Money Bill is limited. While they can propose recommendations, the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether to accept or reject those changes.

  17. Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided…

    Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in:

    1. Athe Preamble and Fundamental Rights
    2. Bthe Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. Cthe Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. DNone of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The objective of 'Economic Justice' is explicitly enshrined in both the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

    1. The Preamble: It aims to secure to all citizens of India Justice in three distinct forms: Social, Economic, and Political. Economic justice implies the elimination of inequalities in wealth, income, and property.

    2. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV): - Article 38: Directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people, specifically mentioning the need to strive for a social order permeated by social, economic, and political justice. - Article 39: Further reinforces economic justice by directing the State to ensure that citizens have an adequate means of livelihood and that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth.

    Note on Fundamental Rights: While Fundamental Rights (Part III) ensure political and civil justice (like equality before the law), the specific mandate for 'Economic Justice' is primarily found in the Preamble and the DPSP.

  18. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 89 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and is not a member of the House. However, the Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members. Therefore, the Deputy Chairman is a member of the House, making the statement "both are not members" factually wrong.

    Statement 2 is correct: The Electoral College for the President (Article 54) includes only elected members of Parliament. However, the Electoral College for the Vice-President (Article 66) consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members.

  19. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in…

    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    In the context of India's parliamentary government, the following principles are implied institutionally:

    Statement 1 is correct. Close Link Between Legislature and Executive: By requiring Cabinet members to be MPs, a close connection is established between the legislative and executive branches. This ensures the government is accountable to the legislature, which represents the people.

    Statement 2 is correct: Collective Responsibility The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Cabinet functions as a unified body. If the Parliament loses faith in the government through a no-confidence motion, the entire Cabinet, including the Prime Minister, is expected to resign.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Cabinet is not headed by the Head of State. In India, the President is the Head of State, but the Prime Minister leads the Cabinet. The Prime Minister is the head of government and wields significant executive power.

  20. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2.…

    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 3 only
    2. B1, 3 and 4 only
    3. C2 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members:

    * The Prime Minister (who chairs the council) * Ministers of the Union Cabinet * Chief Ministers of the States

    The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC.

    _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

  21. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts: 1. Consists of not…

    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts: 1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha 2. Scrutinizes the appropriation and finance accounts of the Government 3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing parliamentary committee that acts as a watchdog over government spending.

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Committee consists of 22 members, not 25. These members are drawn from both Houses of Parliament—15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. They are elected every year from amongst the members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

    Statement 2 is correct: The main function of the PAC is to examine the Appropriation Accounts (which compare the actual expenditure with the grants sanctioned by Parliament) and the Finance Accounts of the Government of India to ensure that public money is spent legally and for the intended purpose.

    Statement 3 is correct: The Committee examines the audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The CAG assists the Committee during its deliberations, often described as the 'guide, philosopher, and friend' of the PAC.

  22. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which…

    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

    1. ATo provide self-governance
    2. BTo recognize traditional rights
    3. CTo create autonomous regions in tribal areas
    4. DTo free tribal people from exploitation
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * PESA doesn't deal with the creation of autonomous regions in tribal areas.

    * The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous entities. The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.

  23. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for…

    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

    1. Awith the consent of all the States
    2. Bwith the consent of the majority of States
    3. Cwith the consent of the States concerned
    4. Dwithout the consent of any State
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The Indian Parliament has the authority to enact laws applicable throughout the country (or any specific region) to fulfil its obligations under international treaties. This power is enshrined in Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.

    Unlike some situations where the Parliament might require state consent for legislative actions, Article 253 grants the authority to enact these laws without needing approval from individual states.

    Also, the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on any matter in the state list under five extraordinary circumstances - Rajya Sabha passes the resolution(Article 249) - During a National Emergency (Article 250, read with Article 352) - States make a request(Article 252) - To implement international agreements(Article 253) - During the President's rule (Article 356).

  24. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1.…

    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Correct: The National Development Council was established in August 1952 by an executive resolution of the Government of India and is not mentioned in the Constitution. Statement 2 is Correct: The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution and was a non-constitutional, non-statutory body. Statement 3 is Correct: Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956; they are not mentioned in the Constitution.

  25. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    Which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. AIn India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
    2. BThe Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
    3. CNo procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
    4. DIn the cases of a Union Territory having a legislative setup the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Option 'A' is incorrect: The 7th Amendment permitted the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states. This was implemented to streamline administration, particularly during the period of state reorganisation.

    Option 'B' is incorrect: The judges of the High Court are also appointed by the President, like the Judges of the Supreme Court.

    Option 'C' is correct: No procedure for the removal of the Governor is mentioned in the Constitution, as the Governor works under the pleasure of the President.

    Option 'D' is incorrect: The Chief Minister of a Union Territory is appointed by the President, not LG.

  26. Consider the following statements:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. A1 Only
    2. B2 Only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNon of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The first statement claims that the Constitution of India classifies ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. This is incorrect because the Constitution does not lay down such a classification. The Constitution broadly provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President and refers to ministers in general terms, mentioning the appointment of a Prime Minister and other ministers. While in practice the executive uses designations like Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge and Minister of State, these designations are matters of convention and administrative practice under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules and Cabinet Secretariat procedures, not constitutional categories. The historical post of Deputy Minister also exists by practice but is not constitutionally mandated as a formal rank, so the categorical claim that the Constitution classifies ministers into these four ranks is factually incorrect for the purposes of a constitutional provisions question.

    The second statement asserts that the total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. This statement is correct and reflects a specific constitutional amendment. The 91st Amendment to the Constitution introduced a ceiling on the size of the Council of Ministers in Article 75(1A), limiting the total number of ministers in the Union Council to 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was inserted to check excessive expansion of the Council of Ministers and to promote fiscal responsibility and efficient governance. The ceiling is a constitutional rule and is applicable nationwide and fixed relative to the Lok Sabha membership, so the numerical cap is accurately represented by the statement.

    Putting the two statements together, the correct choice is therefore the one that accepts only the second statement. The first is a common misconception because everyday usage and government notifications often display ministerial ranks, but such administrative classifications should not be confused with constitutional text. The Constitution frames the structure of the Council of Ministers and contains provisions on collective responsibility and appointment, but it does not enumerate ministerial ranks or define a hierarchy of Cabinet, MOS (Independent Charge), MOS and Deputy Ministers as constitutional categories. That distinction is crucial for constitutional law questions in the UPSC Prelims context.

    Other options that pair both statements as correct or reject both are therefore incorrect. Option a which accepts only the first statement is wrong because statement one is not a constitutional provision. Option c which accepts both is wrong because the first statement is false even though the second is true. Option d which rejects both is wrong because the second statement is actually correct after the 91st Amendment. Hence the verified answer selecting only the second statement is the correct response in constitutional terms and aligns with the cited verification reason concerning the 91st Amendment cap.

  27. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship…

    With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 Only
    2. B2 Only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is Correct: Article 5 of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions "domicile" in the territory of India. Furthermore, the Supreme Court in the *Pradeep Jain v. Union of India* case ruled that India has only one domicile—the domicile of India—and does not recognize separate state domiciles.

    Statement 2 is Incorrect: Under Article 58 of the Constitution, any person who is a citizen of India is eligible for the office of the President (Head of State). Unlike the United States, where only a natural-born citizen can become President, in India, both a citizen by birth and a naturalized citizen are eligible for the post.

    Statement 3 is Incorrect: According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Central Government can deprive a person of their citizenship (Deprivation) if it was obtained by fraud, false representation, concealment of material facts, or if the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.