UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

YEAR ASKED IN

2013

Practice UPSC 2013 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 101 Prelims MCQs and 93 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 101

  1. Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households? 1. Regional…

    Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households? 1. Regional Rural Banks 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development 3. Land Development Banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): RRBs are established to provide credit and banking facilities to rural areas, especially to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans. They grant direct credit assistance to rural households.

    2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD): NABARD primarily provides refinance facilities to banks and financial institutions for lending to rural sectors. It does not directly lend to rural households, except in very limited cases through pilot schemes.

    3. Land Development Banks (LDBs): LDBs provide long-term credit to farmers for land development and agricultural improvements. They grant direct loans to rural households.

  2. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

    Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

    1. ADesert margins, liable to strong wind action
    2. BLow flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
    3. CScrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
    4. DNone of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Contour Bunding is associated with terracing, to check the flow of water on a hill slope in order to reduce soil erosion. This method is crucial for preventing soil erosion and is a part of sustainable land management practices.

  3. Consider the following phenomena: 1. Size of the sun at dusk 2. Colour of…

    Consider the following phenomena: 1. Size of the sun at dusk 2. Colour of the sun at dawn 3. Moon being visible at dawn 4. The twinkle of stars in the sky 5. Polestar being visible in the sky Which of the above are optical illusions?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B3, 4 and 5
    3. C1, 2 and 4
    4. D2, 3 and 5
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    An optical illusion is a perception that differs from physical reality, often caused by atmospheric effects or the brain's processing of visual information.

    Size of the sun at dusk is an optical illusion: The sun appears larger near the horizon than when it's high in the sky, even though its actual angular size is unchanged. This is a psychological illusion caused by our brain misinterpreting distance cues.

    Colour of the sun at dawn is an optical illusion: The sun appears red because its light travels through more of the atmosphere, which scatters away blue light. This phenomenon, known as Rayleigh scattering, creates a perception of color that differs from the sun's actual light.

    Moon being visible at dawn is not an optical illusion: This is a real astronomical event. The moon is often in a position in its orbit where it is bright enough to be seen during daylight hours.

    The twinkle of stars in the sky is an optical illusion: Stars don't actually blink. Their light is refracted by turbulent layers in Earth's atmosphere, causing their apparent brightness to change rapidly, which we perceive as twinkling.

    Polestar being visible in the sky is not an optical illusion: This is a real phenomenon based on celestial mechanics. The Polestar's apparent fixed position is due to its close alignment with the Earth's axis of rotation

  4. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.”…

    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders." The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

    1. AAfrican Savannah
    2. BNorth American Prairie
    3. CSiberian Tundra
    4. DCentral Asian Steppe
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Steppes: Steppes are usually characterized by a semi-arid or continental climate. Extremes can be recorded in the summer of up to 45 °C (113 °F) and in winter, -50 °C (-58°F). Besides this huge difference between summer and winter, the differences between day and night are also very great.

    ![Central Asian Steppe](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Central_Asian_Steppe_3cf30b3b03.jpg)

    African Savannah & North American Prairie: These regions have more rainfall and varied landscapes compared to the Steppe. Nomadic herding existed, but wasn't the sole way of life.

    Siberian Tundra: Colder, less rain, permafrost. Not ideal for grazing animals. Nomadic herding is less prevalent.

    Therefore, the Central Asian Steppe, with its extreme climate, limited rainfall, and historical dependence on nomadic herding, best fits the description in the statement.

  5. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news…

    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importances of discovering this particle? 1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass. 2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology to transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them. 3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Higgs Boson is a particle postulated by the Standard Model of Physics to provide mass to all particles in the universe.

    Statement 1 is correct: Discovery of the Higgs Boson will help us further understand why elementary particles have mass.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The technology of transferring physical matter without traversing the physical space in between is not presently related to the discovery of the Higgs Boson.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: The Higgs Boson will not help in creating better fuels for nuclear fission. It has to be understood that the discovery of the Higgs Boson will only confirm what has already been theorised and is not the discovery of a new principle in Physics.

  6. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who…

    Consider the following Bhakti Saints: 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

    1. A1 and 3
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1 and 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Babur took over in 1526, Dadu Dayal lived between 1544-1603 and Tyagaraja between 1767-1847, thus statements one and three are definitely incorrect.

    Guru Nanak lived between 1469 and 1539 and was preaching in 1526 when the Lodi Dynasty fell and Babur took over.

  7. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the 1. Meeting…

    During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the 1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky 2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds 3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. DNone of the above produces the thunder
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The collision of clouds does not produce thunder.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Thunder is the sound produced by the rapid expansion of air due to the intense heat of lightning, not by the separation of clouds.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Strong updrafts contribute to cloud formation but do not directly cause thunder.

    Thus, none of the above produces the thunder.

    Explanation: Thunder is produced by the rapid expansion of air surrounding a lightning bolt, which creates a shock wave that we hear as sound. None of the options directly describes this mechanism.

    ![Thunderstorm](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Thunderstorm_eccdbc398e.jpg)

  8. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What…

    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

    1. AVihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
    2. BChaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
    3. CChaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
    4. DThere is no material difference between the two
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    A chaitya is a Buddhist shrine or prayer hall with a stupa at one end. In modern texts on Indian architecture, the term chaitya-griha is often used to denote an assembly or prayer hall that houses a stupa.

    Vihara generally refers to a monastery for Buddhist renunciates. The concept is ancient and in early Sanskrit and Pali texts, it meant any arrangement of space or facilities for pleasure and entertainment.

    The term evolved into an architectural concept wherein it refers to living quarters for monks with an open shared space or courtyard, particularly in Buddhism. The term is also found in Ajivika, Hindu, and Jain monastic literature, usually referring to the temporary refuge for wandering monks or nuns during the annual Indian monsoons.

    In modern Jainism, the monks continue to wander from town to town except during the rainy season (Chaturmas), the term "vihara" refers to their wanderings. Vihara or vihara hall has a more specific meaning in the architecture of India, especially ancient Indian rock-cut architecture. Here it means a central hall, with small cells connected to it, sometimes with beds carved from stone.

  9. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among –

    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among -

    1. ANO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
    2. BCO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
    3. CCO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
    4. DHigh concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The correct answer is Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight.

    * Nitrogen Dioxide: Released mainly from vehicle exhaust and industrial emissions.

    * Sunlight: Sunlight's energy initiates the chemical reactions that form smog.

    * Volatile Organic Compounds: These are released from gasoline, paints, solvents, and other sources. They react with NO2 in the presence of sunlight.

    * Ozone: Ground-level ozone is a major component of photochemical smog, created by the reactions between NO2 and VOCs.

    * Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN): PAN is another harmful component of smog, formed in the same reactions.

    The simplified process: Sunlight triggers reactions between Nitrogen Dioxide and VOCs, leading to the formation of ozone, PAN, and other noxious components of photochemical smog.

  10. Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the…

    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 4 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    According to Article 88 of the Constitution every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.

  11. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces…

    With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:

    1. ADirectly elected by the people of those Provinces
    2. BNominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
    3. CElected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
    4. DSelected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Constituent Assembly of India was partially elected to write the Constitution of India. Following India's independence from Great Britain in 1947, its members served as the nation's first Parliament.

    The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single, transferable vote system of proportional representation.

  12. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the:

    An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the:

    1. Amarket rate of interest is likely to fall
    2. BCentral Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
    3. CCentral Bank is following an easy money policy
    4. DCentral Bank is following a tight money policy
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks.

    To curb liquidity, the central bank can resort to raising the bank rate and vice versa.

    An increase in rate points toward a tight money policy is being followed by the RBI.

  13. Consider the following organisms: 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above…

    Consider the following organisms: 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3
    4. D3 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Out of the three organisms listed, only 2. Nostoc is commonly used as a biofertilizer.

    Agaricus: This is a type of mushroom and not typically used as a biofertilizer.

    Nostoc: This is a filamentous, nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium. Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are one of the main groups of organisms used in biofertilizers due to their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen and make it available to plants.

    Spirogyra: This is a green alga and not generally used as a biofertilizer.

  14. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:

    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:

    1. AThe reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
    2. BThe grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
    3. CThe uprooting of the Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
    4. DWriting off all peasant debts
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Tebhaga movement was significant peasant agitation, initiated in Bengal by the Kisan Sabha (peasant front of the Communist Party of India) in 1946-47.

    At that time sharecroppers had contracted to give half of their harvest to the landlords. The demand of the Tebhaga (sharing by thirds ) movement was to reduce the landlord share to one third.

  15. A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by: 1. an…

    A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by: 1. an increase in the money supply 2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output 3. an increase in the effective demand Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is correct: According to the quantity theory of money, if the money supply increases faster than output, it leads to more money chasing the same amount of goods, causing inflation.

    Statement 2 is correct: When output decreases but demand remains the same, there is excess demand relative to supply, which can push prices up (cost-push inflation).

    Statement 3 is correct: Effective demand refers to the total demand for goods and services at a given price level. If it increases beyond the economy's productive capacity, it causes demand-pull inflation.

  16. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

    1. AA state of bliss and rest
    2. BThe complete annihilation of self
    3. CThe extinction of the flame of desire
    4. DA mental stage beyond all comprehension
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Nirvana (Sanskrit for "becoming extinguished" or "blowing out") is a central concept in Indian religious thought, particularly within Buddhism.

    It represents the ultimate goal sought by practitioners of certain meditation disciplines, signifying the extinction of desire, hatred, and ignorance.

    In Buddhism, Nirvana holds the distinction of being the oldest and most prevalent designation for the ultimate objective on the Buddhist path. This state of liberation is believed to lead to the cessation of suffering and rebirth.

  17. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way…

    Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. 2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul. 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Jainisms, Indian religion teaching a path to spiritual purity and enlightenment through disciplined nonviolence (ahimsa, literally noninjury) to all living creatures.

    Statement 1 is correct: The annihilation (nirjara) of karma comes about through penance.

    Statement 2 is correct: Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of entities such as stones, rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living by other sects.

    Statement 3 is correct: The Jaina holds that every living and non-living being is gifted with souls. They are obstructed by karma, just as the natural light of the sun is hindered by clouds. By removing the karma, a soul can remove bondage and regain its natural perfections.

  18. Consider the following statements: 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning…

    Consider the following statements: 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952.

    Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

    Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation.

    Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct.

    _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

  19. Quit India Movement was launched in response to:

    Quit India Movement was launched in response to:

    1. ACabinet Mission Plan
    2. BCripps Proposals
    3. CSimon Commission Report
    4. DWavell Plan
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in response to the failure of the Cripps Proposals.

    * The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, aimed to secure Indian cooperation in World War II by offering limited self-government after the war. However, the proposals were rejected by both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League as they were deemed inadequate.

    * The Wavell Plan was an event of 1945 and the Cabinet Mission Plan was announced in 1946, much later than the Quit India movement while the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928.

  20. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

    The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

    1. Aall import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
    2. Bgoods exported from a country during a year
    3. Cthe economic transaction between the government of one country to another
    4. Dcapital movements from one country to another
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world during a specific period, usually a year. These transactions include the export and import of goods (visible trade), services (invisible trade), and financial assets (capital transfers). According to NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics, "residents" include individuals, business firms, and government agencies. Option A is the correct choice as it provides the most comprehensive definition of the BoP's scope. Other options are incorrect because they either focus on a single component (Option B for goods, Option D for capital) or incorrectly limit the participants to only governments (Option C).

    ![Balance of payments](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Balance_of_Payments_db32333e31.jpg)

  21. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. Across different species…

    Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. Across different species of plants. 2. From animals to plants. 3. From microorganisms to higher organisms. Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Correct: Recombinant DNA technology allows for the movement of genes across different plant species to introduce desirable traits, such as transferring genes from wild grass species to cultivated wheat to improve disease resistance.

    Statement 2 is Correct: Genes can be transferred from animals to plants. A well-known research example involves transferring antifreeze protein genes from cold-water fish (like the winter flounder) into plants like tomatoes and strawberries to enhance their frost tolerance.

    Statement 3 is Correct: Genes from microorganisms are routinely transferred to higher organisms (plants and animals). For example, genes from the soil bacterium *Bacillus thuringiensis* (Bt) are transferred into crops like cotton and corn to provide resistance against lepidopteran pests.

  22. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements: 1.…

    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The caves at Badami (in Karnataka) were built during the 6th–7th centuries CE under the Chalukyas, but they are not the oldest. The oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India are the Barabar Caves in Bihar, dating to the 3rd century BCE (Mauryan period).

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Barabar Caves were indeed made for the Ajivika sect, but they were constructed during the reign of Emperor Ashoka (and later his grandson Dasaratha), not Chandragupta Maurya.

    Statement 3 is correct: At Ellora, caves were excavated for three different faiths — Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism — reflecting religious harmony during the period (6th to 9th centuries CE).

  23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order…

    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

    1. AOceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
    2. BMangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
    3. CMangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
    4. DOceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The correct sequence of ecosystems in order of decreasing productivity is 1. Mangroves > 2. Grasslands > 3. Lakes > 4. Oceans

    Mangroves: These coastal ecosystems boast exceptionally high productivity due to several factors. They receive rich nutrients from both land and sea, have a warm climate, and benefit from tidal flushing that brings in fresh nutrients and removes waste products.

    Grasslands: These moderate-productivity ecosystems are characterized by abundant grasses and herbaceous plants. Their productivity depends on factors like rainfall, soil quality, and grazing pressure.

    Lakes: Freshwater lakes exhibit varying levels of productivity depending on the nutrient availability (oligotrophic - nutrient-poor, eutrophic - nutrient-rich). Generally, they are less productive than mangroves and grasslands.

    Oceans: Marine ecosystems, particularly open oceans, have the lowest overall productivity. Nutrient availability is limited in vast stretches of the ocean, leading to a slower rate of organic matter production compared to the other ecosystems listed.

  24. Consider the following pairs: |Protected areas|Region| |– |–| |1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve|Garo Hills| |2.…

    Consider the following pairs: |Protected areas|Region| |-- |--| |1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve|Garo Hills| |2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake|Barail Range| |3. Namdapha National Park|Dafla Hills| Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. ANone
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1,2 and 3 only
    4. D1 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Out of the listed pairs, only Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is correctly matched to Garo Hills.

    Pair 1 is correctly matched: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is situated in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya.

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Logtak (Loktak) Lake (famous for Phumdis) is located in Manipur, not the Barail Range (which is a mountain range in Assam).

    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Namdapha National Park is indeed found in Arunachal Pradesh, but not specifically in the Dafla Hills region. It's on the eastern border with Myanmar.

    ![Biosphere Reserves and Hills](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Biosphere_Reserves_and_Hills_05d4877598.jpg)

  25. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity, electromagnetism,…

    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

    1. AGravity is the strongest of the four
    2. BElectromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge
    3. CWeak nuclear force causes radioactivity
    4. DStrong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nuclear of an atom.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement A is incorrect: Gravity is actually the weakest of the four fundamental forces for a given distance.

    Statement B is correct: Electromagnetism acts only on charged particles, where the charge can be negative or positive.

    Statement C is correct: The weak force is responsible for the existence and structure of atomic nuclei, including radioactivity and nuclear fusion.

    Statement D is correct: Strong nuclear force is responsible for holding protons and neutrons together inside the atomic nucleus and is 100 times stronger than electromagnetism.

  26. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers.…

    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

    1. Ais found in the atmosphere as moisture and clouds
    2. Bis found in freshwater lakes and rivers
    3. Cexists as groundwater
    4. Dexists as soil moisture
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    According to the U.S. Geological Survey, over 68 percent of the freshwater on Earth is found in ice caps and glaciers, and just over 30 percent is found in groundwater.

    Only about 0.3 percent of our freshwater is found in the surface water of lakes, rivers, and swamps.

    ![Water composition on earth](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Water_Composition_f86d887e2b.jpg)

  27. Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation. Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is not correct: The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, not parliament.

    Statement 2 is correct: The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

    Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

  28. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

    Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

    1. Athe actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
    2. Bthe effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
    3. Cthe effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    A ball bearing is a type of Rolling element bearing that uses the ball to maintain the separation between the bearing races. The purpose of round ball bearings is to reduce the surface area of contact between the object being moved and the one which is providing the power.

    Thus, reduced area means less friction and more efficiency. The balls have a much lower coefficient of friction than the two flat surfaces sliding against each other.

    ![Ball Bearing](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Ball_Bearing_11b96c659a.jpg)

  29. Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed…

    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. 2. They worshipped both male and female deities. 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. DNone of the statements given above is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: No temples or religious places have been discovered in Harappan cities.

    Statement 2 is correct: Figurines resembling a female deity have been found. They suggest the worship of Mother Goddess. A seal with a male figure sitting in a yogic posture with a trident-like headgear, surrounded by animals, has been found. This has a lot of similarities with Shiva. From this, it is figured that the Harappans might be worshipping Shiva.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Based on the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals, including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels, were domesticated. But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse.

  30. Which one of the following groups of items are included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

    Which one of the following groups of items are included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?

    1. AForeign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights SDRs and loans from foreign countries
    2. BForeign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
    3. CForeign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
    4. DForeign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    India's foreign-exchange reserves include:

    1. Foreign currency assets (FCAs): This is the largest component, consisting of deposits and holdings in major currencies like US Dollars, Euros, and Yen.

    2. Gold reserves: India holds a significant amount of gold bullion as part of its foreign exchange reserves.

    3. Special drawing rights (SDRs): These are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that supplement official foreign reserves.

    4. Reserve position in the IMF: This refers to India's quota or shareholding position in the IMF, which can be a source of additional foreign currency if needed.

Mains Q&A 93

  1. You are the Executive Director of an upcoming Infotech Company which is making a name for itself in the market. Mr. A, who is a star performer, is heading the marketing team. In a short period of one year, he has helped in doubling the revenues as well as creating a high brand equity for the Company so much so that you are thinking of promoting him. However, you have been receiving information from many corners about his attitude towards the female colleagues; particularly his habit of making loose comments on women. In addition, he regularly sends indecent SMS’s to all the team members including his female colleagues. One day, late in the evening, Mrs. X, who is one of Mr. A’s team members, comes to you visibly disturbed. She complains against the continued misconduct of Mr. A, who has been making undesirable advances towards her and has even tried to touch her inappropriately in his cabin. She tenders her resignation and leaves your office. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option you would adopt, giving reasons.

  2. As a senior officer in the Finance Ministry, you have access to some confidential and crucial information about policy decisions that the Government is about to announce. These decisions are likely to have far-reaching impact on the housing and construction industry. If the builders have access to this information beforehand, they can make huge profits. One of the builders has done a lot of quality work for the Government and is known to be close to your immediate superior, who asks you to disclose this information to the said builder. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons.

  3. You are heading a leading technical institute of the country. The institute is planning to convene an interview panel shortly under your chairmanship for selection of the post of professors. A few days before the interview, you get a call from the Personal Secretary (PS) of a senior government functionary seeking your intervention in favour of the selection of a close relative of the functionary for this post. The PS also informs you that he is aware of the long pending and urgent proposals of your institute for grant of funds for modernization, which are awaiting the functionary’s approval. He assures you that he would get these proposals cleared. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons.

  4. Sivakasi in Tamil Nadu is known for its manufacturing clusters on firecrackers and matches. The local economy of the area is largely dependent on firecrackers industry. It has led to tangible economic development and improved standard of living in the area. So far as child labour norms for hazardous industries like firecrackers industry are concerned, International Labour Organization (ILO) has set the minimum age as 18 years. In India, however, this age is 14 years. The units in industrial clusters of firecrackers can be classified into registered and non-registered entities. One typical unit is household-based work. Though the law is clear on the use of child labour employment norms in registered/non-registered units, it does not include household-based works. Household-based work means children working under the supervision of their parents/relatives. To evade child labour norms, several units project themselves as household-based works but employ children from outside. Needless to say that employing children saves the costs for these units leading to higher profits to the owners. On your visit to one of the units at Sivakasi, the owner takes you around the unit which has about 10-15 children below 14 years of age. The owner tells you that in his household-based unit, the children are all his relatives. You notice that several children smirk, when the owner tells you this. On deeper enquiry, you figure out that neither the owner nor the children are able to satisfactorily establish their relationship with each other. (a) Bring out and discuss the ethical issues involved in the above case. (b) What would be your reaction after your above visit?

  5. You are working as an Executive Engineer in the construction cell of a Municipal Corporation and are presently in-charge of the construction of a flyover. There are two Junior Engineers under you who have the responsibility of day-to-day inspection of the site and are reporting to you, while you are finally reporting to the Chief Engineer who heads the cell. While the construction is heading towards completion, the Junior Engineers have been regularly reporting that all construction is taking place as per design specifications. However, in one of your surprise inspections, you have noticed some serious deviations and lacunae which, in your opinion, are likely to affect the safety of the flyover. Rectification of these lacunae at this stage would require a substantial amount of demolition and rework which will cause a tangible loss to the contractor and will also delay completion. There is a lot of public pressure on the Corporation to get this construction completed because of heavy traffic congestion in the area. When you brought this matter to the notice of the Chief Engineer, he advised you that in his opinion it is not a very serious lapse and may be ignored. He advised for further expediting the project for completion in time. However, you are convinced that this was a serious matter which might affect public safety and should not be left unaddressed. What will you do in such a situation? Some of the options are given below. Evaluate the merits and demerits of each of these options and finally suggest what course of action you would like to take, giving reasons: (i) Follow the advice of the Chief Engineer and go ahead. (ii) Make an exhaustive report of the situation bringing out all facts and analysis along with your own viewpoints stated clearly and seek for written orders from the Chief Engineer. (iii) Call for explanation from the Junior Engineers and issue orders to the contractor for necessary correction within targeted time. (iv) Highlight the issue so that it reaches superiors above the Chief Engineer. (v) Considering the rigid attitude of the Chief Engineer, seek transfer from the project or report sick.

  6. A Public Information Officer has received an application under RTI Act. Having gathered the information, the PIO discovers that the information pertains to some of the decisions taken by him, which were found to be not altogether right. There were other employees also who were party to these decisions. Disclosure of the information is likely to lead to disciplinary action with possibility of punishment against him as well as some of his colleagues. Non-disclosure or part disclosure or camouflaged disclosure of information will result into lesser punishment or no punishment. The PIO is otherwise an honest and conscientious person but this particular decision, on which the RTI application has been filed, turned out to be wrong. He comes to you for advice. The following are some suggested options. Please evaluate the merits and demerits of each of the options: (i) The PIO could refer the matter to his superior officer and seek his advice and act strictly in accordance with the advice, even though he is not completely in agreement with the advice of the superior. (ii) The PIO could proceed on leave and leave the matter to be dealt by his successor in office or request for transfer of the application to another PIO. (iii) The PIO could weigh the consequences of disclosing the information truthfully, including the effect on his career, and reply in a manner that would not place him or his career in jeopardy, but at the same time a little compromise can be made on the contents of the information. (iv) The PIO could consult his other colleagues who are party to the decision and take action as per their advice. Also please indicate (without necessarily restricting to the above options) what you would like to advise, giving proper reasons.

  7. Given below are three quotations of great moral thinkers/philosophers. For each of these quotations, bring out what it means to you in the present context: (a) “There is enough on this earth for every one’s need but for no one’s greed.” — Mahatma Gandhi (b) “Nearly all men can withstand adversity, but if you want to test a man’s character, give him power.” — Abraham Lincoln (c) “I count him braver who overcomes his desires than him who overcomes his enemies.” — Aristotle