MCQ SUBJECT

Indian Polity

237 UPSC Prelims MCQs tagged "Indian Polity". Free practice with answer keys, explanations, and timed mock tests on Anantam IAS.

Indian Economy 256 Environment 249 Indian Polity 240 Science & Technology 192 History 184 International Relations 104 Art & Culture 94 Geography 82 Indian Geography 70 Indian Society 57 World Geography 36 CSAT 29 Science & Tech 22 Art and Culture 8 Current Affairs 6 General Studies 4

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and types…
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and types of 'Writs':
1. AOnly 2, 3 and 4
2. BOnly 1 and 2
3. COnly 1, 3 and 4
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals or bodies, so statement 1 is wrong. Quo warranto lets a court ask by what authority a person holds a public office, so statement 2 is correct. Prohibition is issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, making statement 3 correct, and the Supreme Court issues writs only for fundamental rights while High Courts can do so for other legal rights too, so statement 4 is correct.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements regarding the effects of ‘Emergency’ in the Indian Constitution:
Consider the following statements regarding the effects of 'Emergency' in the Indian Constitution:
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 2
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Both statements are flawed → (D). Statement 1 is overbroad: under Article 358 the six freedoms in Article 19 are suspended automatically — by operation of the Constitution, with no presidential order needed — ONLY when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression, not for an emergency on the ground of armed rebellion (post-44th Amendment). A presidential order is what Article 359 requires, and that is to suspend the enforcement of OTHER rights, not Article 19. Statement 2 is also incorrect as worded. So neither statement is correct.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Joint Sitting’ of Parliament and its procedure:
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Joint Sitting' of Parliament and its procedure:
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 1, 3 and 4
3. COnly 2 and 4
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The President can summon a joint sitting under Article 108 to break a deadlock on an ordinary Bill, there is no joint sitting for Constitutional Amendment or Money Bills, and only three joint sittings have been held so far, so statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because in the Speaker's absence the Deputy Speaker presides, and the Rajya Sabha Chairman never presides over a joint sitting.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
With reference to the four new ‘Labour Codes’ enacted by the Parliament of India,…
With reference to the four new 'Labour Codes' enacted by the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 2
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Labour is in the Concurrent List, but the Codes are not implemented uniformly by central executive order; states must frame their own rules and roll-out has been staggered, so statement 1 is wrong. The Code on Wages, 2019, actually universalised the minimum wage to all workers in both organized and unorganized sectors, removing the old scheduled-employment limit, so statement 2 is also wrong.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard
With reference to the 16th Finance Commission (FC) and its recommendations, consider the following…
With reference to the 16th Finance Commission (FC) and its recommendations, consider the following statements regarding which are incorrect:
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 3
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body, but its recommendations are advisory and not legally binding on the Union, so statement 1 is incorrect. The 16th FC did discontinue revenue deficit, sector-specific and state-specific grants rather than continuing them, so statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 about adding 'contribution to GDP' for horizontal devolution is true, so the incorrect statements are 1 and 3.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard
Consider the following statements regarding the posts of ‘Attorney General’ and ‘Solicitor General’ of…
Consider the following statements regarding the posts of 'Attorney General' and 'Solicitor General' of India:
1. AOnly 1, 2 and 4
2. BOnly 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 4
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Attorney General is the government's chief legal advisor appointed by the President, can speak in both Houses without a vote, and holds office during the President's pleasure, so statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Solicitor General's post is statutory, not a constitutional post like the Attorney General's, so statement 3 is wrong.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements in relation to Article 14, “equality before law” and “equal…
Consider the following statements in relation to Article 14, "equality before law" and "equal protection of the laws":
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 2
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Both statements swap the two concepts. "Equality before law" is the negative concept of British origin, implying absence of any special privilege. "Equal protection of the laws" is the positive concept of American origin, implying equal treatment in equal circumstances. Since the question attaches the wrong description to each, neither statement is correct.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the ‘Central Vigilance Commission’ (CVC) and…
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the 'Central Vigilance Commission' (CVC) and the anti-corruption framework in India:
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 3
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The CVC was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee, so statement 1 is correct. It is an independent apex body and does not work under any 'Investigation Bureau', so statement 2 is wrong. Its Chairman and members are barred from holding any further office under the Central or State Government after retirement, making statement 3 correct.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Examine the following statements regarding the ‘Right to Information’ (RTI Act, 2005) and its…
Examine the following statements regarding the 'Right to Information' (RTI Act, 2005) and its limitations:
1. AOnly 2, 3 and 4
2. BOnly 1 and 3
3. COnly 1, 2 and 4
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
An applicant need not state any reason for seeking information under the RTI Act, so statement 1 is wrong. Information concerning a person's life or liberty must be supplied within 48 hours, matters affecting sovereignty, integrity and strategic interests can be refused, and the Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister, so statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
With reference to the Uniform Civil Code Bill recently passed by the Gujarat Legislative…
With reference to the Uniform Civil Code Bill recently passed by the Gujarat Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 2
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Gujarat's UCC Bill makes registration of live-in relationships compulsory and fully exempts Scheduled Tribes, so statement 1 is correct. The Bill, modelled on Uttarakhand's UCC, retains a heteronormative framework and does not recognise same-sex marriages or civil unions, which makes statement 2 wrong.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Examine the following statements regarding the composition and jurisdiction of the Delimitation Commission:
Examine the following statements regarding the composition and jurisdiction of the Delimitation Commission:
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 2, 3 and 4
3. COnly 1 and 4
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body appointed by the President and works with the Election Commission, and its orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned in any court, so statements 1 and 2 hold. It has been set up four times, in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, and the 84th Amendment froze the apportionment of Lok Sabha seats until the first census after 2026, making statements 3 and 4 correct too.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Which of the following statements about the Sabarimala temple is/are correct?
Which of the following statements about the Sabarimala temple is/are correct?
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 3
4. D1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The core of the Sabarimala litigation is the bar on women of menstruating age, 10 to 50 years, not a property dispute, so statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct. In its 2018 judgment the Supreme Court held the exclusion of these women unconstitutional, so statement 3 is correct. The right combination is 2 and 3.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements about the Council of States:
Consider the following statements about the Council of States:
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 2
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Statement 1 is correct — under the Constitution there is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha seats are allotted by population, unlike the US Senate's equal representation). Statement 2 is incorrect — the Rajya Sabha can correctly be described as a federal chamber; the 12 nominated members don't negate that (official Rajya Sabha material itself calls it the federal chamber). So only statement 1 is correct → (A).
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Which of the following best explains federalism in India?
Which of the following best explains federalism in India?
1. ADependence of States on the Union for finances and functionaries
2. BCooperation among all the states for the development of the nation
3. CDistribution of powers between the Union and the States
4. DAn agreement between the Union and the States to set up federalism
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
Federalism's defining feature is the constitutional division of powers between the Union and the States, organised in India through the Union, State and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule. The other options describe particular tendencies or outcomes but don't capture the core idea. India is a federation by constitutional creation, not by an agreement among units.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Easy
As per Article 53 of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall…
As per Article 53 of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall be vested with the
1. APresident
2. BPrime Minister
3. CUnion Cabinet
4. DUnion Cabinet Secretary
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. In practice the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, but the formal vesting is in the President.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Easy
The Basic Structure doctrine propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case…
The Basic Structure doctrine propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case is related to which of the following?
1. AOnly 1 and 2
2. BOnly 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 4
4. DOnly 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The Kesavananda Bharati (1973) verdict held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure, directly addressing Parliament's amending power (statement 2) and the supremacy of the Constitution (statement 3). It wasn't about executive encroachment on the judiciary or legislative control of the executive, so 1 and 4 don't apply.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
The Competition Commission of India aims to establish a robust competitive environment through proactive…
The Competition Commission of India aims to establish a robust competitive environment through proactive engagement with:
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. BOnly 1 and 2
3. COnly 1 and 3
4. DOnly 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The CCI's competition-advocacy mandate works on three fronts: engaging with the Government on policy, with Industry to encourage fair practices, and with Consumers to raise awareness of their rights. All three groups are part of its proactive engagement, so the answer covers 1, 2 and 3.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Easy
Consider the following in relation to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
Consider the following in relation to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
1. A1, 2, 3 and 4
2. BOnly 1, 2 and 3
3. COnly 1 and 2
4. DOnly 1, 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
The DGCA primarily handles safety issues in civil aviation and regulates air transport services, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Its headquarters are in New Delhi, not Bengaluru, so statement 3 is wrong, and it doesn't depend on the Indian Air Force for its day-to-day functions, so statement 4 is wrong too.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The 73rd Amendment added the State Finance Commission mechanism under Article 243-I to ensure a regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj Institutions, so the Assertion is correct. PRIs had long been crippled by a shortage of funds, which is exactly why this funding mechanism was created, so the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Who bears the expenditure incurred on the conduct of the Lok Sabha Elections?
Who bears the expenditure incurred on the conduct of the Lok Sabha Elections?
1. ACentral Government
2. BRespective State Governments
3. CConsolidated Fund of India
4. DConsolidated fund of respective state
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The full expenditure on conducting Lok Sabha elections is borne by the Central Government, while the cost of Assembly elections is met by the respective State Governments. When both are held together the cost is shared. So for Lok Sabha polls, the Central Government foots the bill.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
The Indian Constitution is indeed the longest written constitution in the world, and the Fundamental Rights chapter was modelled on the American Bill of Rights, so both statements are factually correct. The borrowing of Fundamental Rights from the US model has nothing to do with the document's length, which comes from its detailed federal, administrative and other provisions. The Reason doesn't explain the Assertion.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:
1. AOnly 2
2. BOnly 1 and 2
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. DOnly 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
Statement 1 is correct because Article 124 lays down the ground (proved misbehaviour or incapacity) and the broad process for removing a Supreme Court judge. Statement 2 is correct because the detailed investigation procedure is set out in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Statement 3 is wrong, since the Collegium system deals with appointments and transfers of judges, not their removal.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following statements:
Consider the following statements:
1. AOnly 1
2. BOnly 1 and 2
3. COnly 1 and 3
4. DNone of the above
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
All three statements are wrong. 'Procedure Established by Law' is expressly written into Article 21, so statement 1 misstates it as absent. 'Due Process of Law' is the American doctrine and is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution, so statement 2 is false. Statement 3 reverses the definitions: due process tests whether a law is just and reasonable, while procedure established by law only checks that a valid procedure was followed.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the right…
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right?
1. AM.C. Mehta v. Union of India
2. BNational Legal Services Authority (NALSA) v. Union of India
3. CManeka Gandhi v. Union of India
4. DJustice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
A nine-judge bench in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) unanimously held that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right protected under Article 21. M.C. Mehta dealt with environmental and absolute-liability matters, NALSA recognised transgender rights, and Maneka Gandhi expanded the scope of Article 21 generally but did not declare privacy a fundamental right.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Easy
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Supreme Court does have the power of judicial review, and Articles 13, 32 and 226 together supply its constitutional foundation. Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void, Article 32 lets the Supreme Court enforce those rights, and Article 226 gives the High Courts writ jurisdiction. The Reason directly explains why the power exists, so it's the correct explanation.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
The Assertion is wrong. An advisory opinion delivered under Article 143 is not binding on the President; it carries persuasive weight but the President isn't compelled to act on it. The Reason is correct because Article 143 does empower the President to refer questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
Judicial review is firmly recognised as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution, so the Assertion is true. The power exists precisely so the courts can keep the Constitution supreme over ordinary parliamentary action, which is what the Reason says, so the Reason is true and explains the Assertion.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Easy
Which of the following have been recognised as part of the Basic Structure of…
Which of the following have been recognised as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
1. AOnly 1, 2 and 3
2. BOnly 1 and 4
3. C1, 2, 3 and 4
4. DOnly 2 and 4
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The Supreme Court has held judicial review, federalism and the rule of law to be part of the Basic Structure. Supremacy of Parliament is not, since the Constitution, not Parliament, is supreme in India, and parliamentary sovereignty in the British sense doesn't apply here. So only 1, 2 and 3 qualify.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Medium
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A
The 43rd Amendment (1977) rolled back several provisions the 42nd Amendment had inserted, so the Assertion is right. One of its central acts was repealing the articles that had curtailed the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts and the Supreme Court, restoring their power of judicial review, so the Reason is right too. Since that restoration is precisely how the 43rd reversed the 42nd, the Reason explains the Assertion.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
1. ABoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. BBoth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. CAssertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
4. DAssertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
Defective question. The Assertion is false: after Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a constitutional amendment can be struck down only if it damages the Basic Structure — not merely because it affects a Fundamental Right. The Reason is also wrong as worded — Fundamental Rights are not 'superior to all other constitutional provisions'; Parliament can amend them under Article 368, subject only to the Basic Structure limit. With both the Assertion and the Reason false and no 'both false' option available, the item is defective; (D) is the least-wrong choice because it at least marks the Assertion as incorrect.
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Indian Polity UPSC GPSC-2026 Hard