Indian Polity

* Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits a person from using or wearing, without lawful authority, any naval, military, air force, police, or other official uniform, or any uniform so nearly resembling the same as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform

* Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is under The Official Secrets Act, 1923, that no person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead, or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of 21 [the Armed Forces of the Union] engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.

* Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Arms Act Amendment of 2019 adds news offenses such as forcefully taking a firearm from police or armed forces and using firearms in a celebratory gunfire which endangers human life or the personal safety of others.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: The hoisting/use/display of the Indian National Flag is governed by the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, and the Flag Code of India, 2002. The flag code states that the tricolour can be of nine standard dimensions however 600mm x 400mm is not one of them.

* Statement 2 is correct: The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape and the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: The power to ratify a proclamation of Emergency is shared by both Houses. Under the Constitution, any such proclamation must be laid before and approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within a specified timeframe.

* Statement 2 is correct: This is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) under Article 75, the Rajya Sabha cannot pass a No-Confidence Motion.

* Statement 3 is incorrect: The process of impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, it is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months, which invalidated the provision in the Aadhaar Act that allowed the storage of such data for up to five years.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 which allowed private corporations to verify Aadhaar data. The Court held this provision unconstitutional, as it was seen to violate privacy rights.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2018 Supreme Court judgment declared that making Aadhaar mandatory for services beyond welfare schemes, including financial services like insurance or for preventing money laundering, was unconstitutional. In response to this ruling, the IRDAI issued an advisory in 2019, clarifying that Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance. It also withdrew its earlier 2017 policy that had made Aadhaar compulsory for insurance in the context of anti-money laundering measures.

Statement 4 is correct: In the Aadhaar verdict, the Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which allows the Central or State Governments to make Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India. The Court defined welfare schemes as those funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, thus validating the use of Aadhaar for such schemes.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is Correct: Ad Hoc Committees are temporary committees established by Parliament for specific purposes, such as investigating irregularities or reviewing the functioning of specific regulatory bodies through Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs).

Statement 2 is Correct: Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) ensure executive accountability by reviewing the annual reports, budgetary allocations, and overall performance of statutory regulators falling under their respective ministries.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 primarily responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources (tax proceeds) between the Union and the States.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was an ad hoc body set up to review and rewrite the legal-institutional framework of the financial sector; it does not perform ongoing reviews of sectoral regulators.

Statement 5 is Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank that provides strategic and technical advice to the government; it lacks the statutory mandate to formally review or oversee the functioning of independent regulators.

The Rule of Law Index is published annually by the World Justice Project (WJP), an independent, multidisciplinary organization. It measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived in countries worldwide based on eight primary factors: Constraints on Government Powers, Absence of Corruption, Open Government, Fundamental Rights, Order and Security, Regulatory Enforcement, Civil Justice, and Criminal Justice. The index relies on data from household and expert surveys to provide a comprehensive picture of the rule of law in practice.

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate their office if they cease to be a member of the Assembly. This is explicitly provided under Article 179 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is incorrect to say that the Speaker vacates office immediately upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.

When the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately. Instead, the Speaker continues in office until the newly elected Assembly convenes for the first time and elects a new Speaker. This ensures continuity in the legislative process and prevents a vacuum in constitutional functions. So, only the first statement is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Aadhaar Act explicitly states that Aadhaar is meant only for identity and residence verification. It does not grant, confirm, or serve as proof of citizenship or domicile status.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While deactivation is temporary, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) can deactivate an Aadhaar number under certain conditions. In specific cases, Aadhaar numbers can even be permanently omitted from the database.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly. States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council.

Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The size of the Legislative Council of a state cannot be larger than one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution sets a limit to ensure the dominance of the lower house (Legislative Assembly) in a bicameral legislature.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Chairman of the Legislative Council is not nominated by the Governor. The members of the Legislative Council themselves elect the Chairman and Deputy Chairman. This ensures the independence of the Upper House from the executive branch (headed by the Governor).

The Government of India established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission.

The Planning Commission was established in 1950 and played a vital role in India's economic development through five-year plans. However, NITI Aayog, formed in 2015, was designed to be a more agile and forward-looking institution compared to the Planning Commission.

Statement 1 is Correct: The 14th Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy, recommended a significant increase in the devolution of taxes from the Union to the States, raising the share in the central divisible pool from 32% to 42%.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The commission moved away from the practice of recommending sector-specific grants. It argued that such tied grants restrict the fiscal autonomy of states. Instead, it focused on enhancing unconditional formula-based devolution to allow states the flexibility to spend according to their own priorities, providing grants only for local bodies and disaster management.

Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Indian Constitution outline the ideals that the government should strive to achieve for its citizens. These principles encompass social justice, economic justice, and political justice, forming the foundation for a socio-economic democracy.

Statement 2 is correct: The DPSPs are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts if violated. However, they serve as guidelines for the government in making laws and policies and can be used by the judiciary while interpreting other laws.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

The Constitution of India vests the executive power in the President (Article 53). However, the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers, with the Prime Minister as its head (Article 75).

So, the real executive authority lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, but formally it's vested in the President.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Chairperson of the Civil Services Board is the Cabinet Secretary, a senior bureaucrat who leads the bureaucracy of the Government of India.

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion.

Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am, which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion, and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.

According to Article 88 of the Constitution every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952.

Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation.

Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct.

_Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._

Statement 1 is not correct: The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, not parliament.

Statement 2 is correct: The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.

According to Section 6(1) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both.

Key points regarding the process: 1. Initiation: The Gram Sabha receives and processes claims for forest rights, prepares maps of the claimed areas, and passes a resolution. 2. Verification: This resolution is then screened by the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC). 3. Final Approval: The District Level Committee (DLC) is the final authority that approves the record of forest rights.

While the Forest Department and Revenue officials are part of the committees at the sub-divisional and district levels, the power to initiate the process rests solely with the Gram Sabha.