National Environmental Legislations

Statement-I is incorrect: Following the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, the number of schedules was reduced from six to four. Schedule V (the vermin category) was abolished. The Indian Flying Fox is currently listed under Schedule II, providing it with higher protection. It is no longer legally classified as "vermin" under the Act.

Statement-II is incorrect: The Indian Flying Fox is one of the largest bats in the world and is a frugivore. Its diet consists of fruits (like mangoes, guavas, and figs) and nectar. It does not feed on blood; "vampire bats" are a different group of species found primarily in Central and South America.

Note: None of the option is correct as both options are incorrect, UPSC dropped this question from the final answer key.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: While Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, specifies that certain wild animals are the property of the State or Central Government, this does not apply to all wild animals. Specifically, animals categorized as 'vermin' (under Schedule V) are excluded from this provision, making the absolute claim that wild animals are the 'sole property' of the government legally inaccurate.

Statement 2 is Correct: The protection status of a wild animal is determined by its listing in the Schedules of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This legal protection is species-specific and applies to the animal wherever it is found, whether it is inside a designated Protected Area (like a National Park or Sanctuary) or outside in human-dominated landscapes.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Under Section 11 of the Act, the Chief Wildlife Warden can only authorize the capture or killing of a protected animal if they are satisfied that the animal 'has become dangerous to human life' or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery. Mere 'apprehension' or the fear that an animal might become a danger is not a sufficient legal ground; there must be an objective determination of actual danger.

* The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants. It classifies species into six schedules, each offering different levels of protection.

* Schedule VI of the Act pertains to certain plants that are prohibited from cultivation and planting without a license. Therefore, If a plant species is listed under Schedule VI, it means a license is required for its cultivation.


* The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 amended the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The amendment reduced the number of schedules from six to four, simplifying wildlife classification and protection levels. Additionally, the Act also aligned the provisions with CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) by introducing a separate schedule (Sch. IV) for species covered under CITES.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Ramsar Convention requires contracting parties to designate suitable wetlands for the List of Wetlands of International Importance and promote their conservation and "wise use." It does not impose a mandatory legal obligation to protect and conserve every single wetland within the entire territory of a country.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Central Government in exercise of the powers conferred by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. They were not framed based on specific recommendations of the Ramsar Convention, although they align with the general spirit of wetland conservation.

Statement 3 is Correct: According to the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, the definition of a 'wetland' includes the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. This allows for a more comprehensive protection of the ecosystem's hydrological cycle.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, provides the Central Government with broad powers to take measures to protect and improve the environment. However, the Act itself does not explicitly mention the 'requirement of public participation' or the 'procedure and manner in which it is sought'. These requirements were later established through the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notifications (such as those in 1994 and 2006) issued under the authority of the Act.

Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources. This allows the government to regulate industrial and other activities to prevent environmental degradation.

Option C is correct: The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, include detailed guidelines under Schedule I regarding the 'Specifications for Sanitary Landfills'. This schedule provides exact and elaborate criteria for site selection, such as maintaining a distance of at least 100 meters from rivers, 200 meters from state and national highways, 500 meters from habitations, and 20 km from airports.

Option A is incorrect: The rules mandate waste generators to segregate waste into three categories: Bio-degradable (wet waste), Non-biodegradable (dry waste), and Domestic Hazardous Waste (such as diapers, napkins, and cleaning agents).

Option B is incorrect: The rules have a broad scope and apply to every urban local body, outgrowths in urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, ports, special economic zones, and places of religious or historical importance.

Option D is incorrect: There is no restriction in the rules prohibiting the movement of waste across district lines. In fact, the rules encourage the development of regional sanitary landfills to be shared by multiple local bodies for better waste management efficiency.

Statement 1 is correct: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both National and State levels. - National CAMPA Oversees the national-level administration of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF). It lays down broad guidelines and ensures proper utilisation of funds across states. - State CAMPA established in each state, manage funds allocated for compensatory afforestation activities within their jurisdiction.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not explicitly mandate people's participation in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Act. The Act focuses on the management and utilisation of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund but does not have a specific provision for mandatory public participation.

Statement 1 is correct: The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, introduces the concept of Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH). These are areas within National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries that must be kept inviolate to ensure wildlife protection. CWHs can only be declared based on scientific evidence and after completing the due process of rehabilitation and resettlement of affected communities.


Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the Baiga tribal community in Madhya Pradesh became the first to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition allowed them to continue living within the Kanha Tiger Reserve while accessing forest resources for their bonafide livelihood needs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, it is the respective State governments that have the authority to declare and vest Habitat Rights for Primitive Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities over critical wildlife habitats, after obtaining consent from the tribal communities and establishing measures for their resettlement and rehabilitation.

Hence, correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by Parliament, making it a statutory body. Similarly, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and is also a statutory body. It plays a key role in environmental regulation in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The NGT's primary role is to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases related to forest conservation, natural resource protection, and pollution control, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts.

The CPCB, functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is responsible for monitoring water and air quality, implementing pollution control measures, and enforcing environmental laws to promote a cleaner environment.

Thus, while both bodies deal with environmental protection, the NGT focuses on adjudication, whereas the CPCB handles regulatory and enforcement functions. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides the highest level of legal protection for wildlife in India. Species listed under this Schedule, such as the Tiger, are protected from hunting and trade, with violations attracting the most stringent penalties. Therefore, any species of tortoise listed in Schedule I enjoys the same legal safeguards as the tiger.

Option B is incorrect as it describes the 'Extinct in the Wild' category of the IUCN Red List, which is a biological conservation status rather than a legal designation under the WPA. Option C is incorrect because endemism refers to a species being restricted to a specific geographic location; while many Schedule I species may be endemic, the listing itself is based on the degree of threat and the requirement for absolute protection rather than geographic range.

Note: The original Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, contained six schedules (I-IV for animals, V for vermin, and VI for plants). The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, has since rationalized these into four schedules, but the principle of Schedule I providing the highest protection remains unchanged.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Eco-Sensitive Zones are not under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972. They are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. While they often surround protected areas like wildlife sanctuaries and national parks established under the Wildlife Act, they are a separate mechanism.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Eco-Sensitive Zones do not prohibit all human activities. The purpose is to regulate and manage specific activities to minimize their impact on the sensitive ecosystem. Some sustainable activities like agriculture, local communities' traditional practices, and eco-tourism may be permitted with regulations.

Gharial: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Schedule I includes species with the highest protection, prohibiting hunting entirely except under exceptional circumstances like disease control or to prevent human attacks. Therefore, hunting Gharial is illegal.


Indian wild ass: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Similar to Gharial, hunting the Indian wild ass is also prohibited.

Wild Buffalo: Listed in Schedule I of the Indian WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, Wild Buffalo cannot be hunted.

_Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972 underwent amendments in 2022, which impacted the scheduling of wild animals._ _Previously, there were six schedules. The amendment streamlined them into four schedules._