Parliament

Statement I: Correct The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94).

Statement II: Incorrect No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality.

Statement III: Correct The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94).

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Statement 1 is Correct: Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to be laid before Parliament. In practice, the Union Finance Minister presents the Budget on behalf of the President before both Houses of Parliament.

Statement 2 is Correct: Article 113(3) of the Constitution explicitly provides that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. This ensures executive control over the proposal of expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Statement 1 is correct: While a Finance Bill (Category I under Art 117) is introduced only in the Lok Sabha (similar to a Money Bill), it is passed according to the ordinary legislative procedure. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it.

Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill (Article 110) cannot be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. It can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While a Joint Sitting is not provided for Money Bills, it is available for Finance Bills. However, it is not "necessary" (mandatory) to hold one. Under Article 108, the President "may" summon a Joint Sitting to resolve the deadlock, but is not obliged to do so; the bill could simply be allowed to lapse.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: The power to ratify a proclamation of Emergency is shared by both Houses. Under the Constitution, any such proclamation must be laid before and approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within a specified timeframe.

* Statement 2 is correct: This is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) under Article 75, the Rajya Sabha cannot pass a No-Confidence Motion.

* Statement 3 is incorrect: The process of impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, it is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. This is a provision under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. This is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget), but it does not have the power to vote on the demands for grants. This is also the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not mention No-Confidence Motion. Rather, Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for moving a no-confidence motion.

Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the House. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. The member has to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am, which will be read out by the Speaker in the House. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion, and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for discussion of the motion.

Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President has the authority to prorogue the Houses, or either House of Parliament, from time to time. The termination of a session of the House by an order from the President under this provision is referred to as 'prorogation.' The President exercises this power of prorogation only upon the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet, i.e., the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct. Typically, prorogation follows adjournment sine die, but technically, the President can prorogue a House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct. The President usually dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances such as a vote of no confidence or other political crises.

* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void.

* Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill.

* Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), the newly inserted Article 334A specifies that the reservation will come into effect only after an exercise of delimitation is undertaken for this purpose after the relevant figures for the first census taken after the commencement of the Act have been published. Consequently, it did not apply to the 18th Lok Sabha elections.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Act provides that the reservation of seats for women shall continue for a period of 15 years from the date of its commencement. However, the Parliament has the authority to extend this period by law.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Act includes provisions for horizontal reservation, ensuring that one-third of the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are reserved for women from those respective categories.

* Article 109 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the special procedure for Money Bills. (Correct)

* Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). (Correct)

* Article 109(5) states that the Rajya Sabha can't reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. (Correct)

* The Lok Sabha has the ultimate power regarding Money Bills. It is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. (Incorrect)

Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.

The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, the two houses of India's Parliament, have different powers and functions. While the Lok Sabha is the lower house with members directly elected by the people, the Rajya Sabha is the upper house with members indirectly elected by the states.

However, when it comes to amending the Constitution, both houses have equal powers. According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, any amendment to the Constitution requires the approval of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, for a constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be approved by both houses of Parliament, giving them equal powers in the process.

Statement 1 is Correct: According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution, the President has the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he/she thinks fit. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Constitution does not mention three sessions of Parliament. It only mandates that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of one session and the date appointed for the first sitting of the next session. The practice of holding three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, and Winter) is a matter of convention and is not explicitly provided for in the Constitution. Statement 3 is Correct: Neither the Constitution of India nor the Rules of Procedure of Parliament prescribe a minimum number of days or sittings that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 164(4) of the Constitution, a minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. However, to be appointed a minister, the person must satisfy the qualifications for membership of the State Legislature as per Article 173. While the voting age is 18 years (Article 326), the minimum age to be a member of the Legislative Assembly is 25 years (and 30 for the Legislative Council). Therefore, a person who is merely "eligible to vote" but under 25 cannot be a minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. It is not a "permanent" disqualification.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted to specify certain offices of profit under the Government that do not disqualify their holders from being Members of Parliament (MPs). It lists several categories of posts, such as Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers, which are exempt from the disqualification criteria mentioned in Article 102(1)(a).

Statement 2 is Correct: The Act has been amended five times since its enactment to expand the list of exempted offices. These amendments took place in 1960, 1993, 1999, 2000, and 2006.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The term 'Office of Profit' is mentioned in Article 102 (for MPs) and Article 191 (for MLAs) of the Constitution, but it is not defined in the Constitution of India or the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The definition and criteria for an 'Office of Profit' have evolved through various judicial interpretations and Supreme Court judgments.

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill.

Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts.

Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill.

Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill.

Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India.

Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Private member's bills are introduced by Members of Parliament (MPs) who are not ministers i.e., they do not hold any position in the government. These bills allow non-ministerial MPs to propose legislative changes, reflecting their views or those of their political parties on important issues.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the passage rate of private member's bills is very low, it is not true that no such bill has ever been passed in recent times. Since 1952, a total of 14 private member's bills have been passed by Parliament. One of the most notable examples is the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1970, which was successfully enacted. However, the majority of private member's bills fail to become law due to a lack of government backing, time constraints, or procedural hurdles.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) neither 1 nor 2.

The statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the winning candidate is the one who receives the highest number of votes, which is also known as the first-past-the-post system. There is no requirement for the winning candidate to secure at least 50% of the votes polled.

The statement 2 is also incorrect. The Constitution of India does not mandate that the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's post goes to the Opposition. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.

Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.

The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through various parliamentary mechanisms, ensuring accountability and transparency in governance. These include:

* Adjournment Motion: This motion is used to discuss a specific and urgent matter of public importance. If admitted, it compels the government to respond and can lead to debate, criticism, or even censure, putting the ruling party in a difficult position.

* Question Hour: Held at the beginning of a parliamentary sitting, MPs can question ministers on government policies, decisions, and administrative matters. This provides a structured way to scrutinize the executive's performance.

* Supplementary Questions: After a minister responds to a question during Question Hour, MPs can ask follow-up questions to seek further clarification or probe deeper into the issue, enhancing ministerial accountability.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2 and 3.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse on prorogation. Prorogation refers to the formal end of a parliamentary session, but it does not affect the pending business of the House. When the Lok Sabha reconvenes in the next session, all pending bills remain active and can be resumed from where they were left.

Statement 2 is Correct: A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is because the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body that is not subject to dissolution. The new Lok Sabha can take up such bills from where they were left.

Key Difference: - Prorogation is a temporary suspension of parliamentary business; pending bills remain unaffected. - Dissolution permanently ends the term of the Lok Sabha, causing pending bills in the Lok Sabha to lapse. However, bills in the Rajya Sabha do not lapse due to its continuous nature.

As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund only after receiving approval from Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Public Accounts include provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on. This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly like banking transactions.

So, only the second statement is correct.

According to Article 108 of the Constitution of India, if a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses, it is passed by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. This is a simple majority applied to the combined strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.