Indian Polity

* Option (a) is correct: The concept of 'Due Process of Law' primarily means that the procedure through which a person is deprived of life or liberty must be fair, just, and reasonable, following the principles of natural justice. It ensures that laws are not only enacted properly but also applied fairly and reasonably.

* Option (b) is not correct: The phrase 'Procedure established by law', used in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, refers to any procedure laid down by law, even if it is unfair. However, after the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) judgment, the Supreme Court read into Article 21 the American concept of 'Due Process of Law', ensuring fairness and reasonableness in both substance and procedure.

* Option (c) is not entirely correct: While fair application of law is part of due process, the phrase 'Due Process of Law' has a broader meaning that encompasses substantive fairness, procedural justice, and conformity with natural justice. Hence, option (a) captures its essence more accurately.

* Option (d) is not correct: Equality before law (Article 14) is a distinct constitutional principle and not equivalent to due process.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.

Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body.

Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory.

Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.

Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

Statement 2 is correct: As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company when it is discharging a "public duty", so the statement is incomplete. Public Duty is Key: Mandamus aims to compel performance of a public duty, not just private functions.

Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Note (on Statement 2): In UPSC Prelims, statements must be judged as written, without adding extra conditions. A company does not become subject to the writ of Mandamus only because it is a Government company. Government ownership by itself is not enough. Since Statement 2 is framed in this limited and absolute sense, and no additional condition like "public duty" is mentioned, the statement is treated as correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 88, Every minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. The Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 76, the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine Conduct of Government Business. There is no mention in the Indian Constitution of the need for him to submit his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Anti-Defection Law, a nominated legislator can join a political party within six months of being appointed to the House, not after such time.

Statement 2 is correct. The Anti-Defection Law does not specify any time limit for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case.

So, only the second statement is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government.

Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the President.

Statement 2 is correct. The 24th Amendment of the Indian Constitution amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the Constitution and the President is obliged to give his/her assent.

Statement 3 is also correct. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority in both houses and there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement.

So, the second and third statements are correct.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Under the Advocates Act, 1961, only individual practitioners can be enrolled as advocates; legal firms are not recognized as advocates. Furthermore, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are not categorically excluded from recognition; if they are enrolled with a State Bar Council, they are recognized as advocates.

Statement 2 is Correct: Section 7 of the Advocates Act, 1961, empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to promote legal education and lay down standards for such education in consultation with Universities and State Bar Councils. The BCI also has the power to recognize Universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrollment as an advocate and to inspect law colleges for this purpose.

Statement 1 is correct: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted based on the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, which examined the law relating to contempt of courts.

Statement 2 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, to punish for contempt of themselves.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt; these are defined under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

Statement 4 is correct: Parliament has the power to make laws on contempt of court, as evidenced by the enactment of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

An open-source digital platform is essentially a software platform where the underlying code is freely available for anyone to see, modify, and distribute. This openness fosters collaboration, transparency, and innovation in software development.

All of the above (1. Aarogya Setu, 2. CoWIN, 3. Digi Locker, 4. DIKSHA) are built on top of open-source digital platforms.

- Aarogya Setu initially wasn't open-source, but the Indian government later made its source code available. - CoWIN leverages open-source software for its development. - DigiLocker utilizes an open-source platform called Digital Locker System. - DIKSHA is built on the open-source platform Sunbird.

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy.

Under Article 39 of the Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards ensuring that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. It is a key part of ensuring economic justice for all.

* The Separation of Powers between the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.

* The doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs. This separation minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since all three organs act as checks and balances on the powers of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the essential functions of other organs.

* This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy.

Statement 1 is Correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a duly qualified retired Judge of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Supreme Court derives its explicit power of review from Article 137 of the Constitution. High Courts have no equivalent explicit constitutional provision granting them review powers. While High Courts, being Courts of Record under Article 215, possess certain inherent powers, their power of review is neither equivalent in source nor in scope to the Supreme Court's review power under Article 137. This distinction was the basis of the official UPSC Answer Key for Prelims 2021, which confirmed Option (A) as correct.

* A comprehensive definition of state should include following elements:

* A community of people permanently occupying a definite territory: This establishes the physical foundation of the state - a population and a defined geographical area.

* Possessing an organized government: This highlights the presence of a central authority that governs the population within the territory.

* Independent of external control (sovereignty): This emphasizes the state's autonomy in exercising its power within its territory.

* The legislation described would violate Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

* Article 14 guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. This means that laws must be applied fairly and consistently, and everyone should be treated equally under the law.

* Legislation that gives unchecked power to the executive or administration to apply the law violates this principle.

Option B is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion.

Option C is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Option D is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Police Custody means that the police have the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in the jail.

Statement 2 is correct: During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect.

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the designated nodal agency at the national level for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. While the Act pertains to forest land, it is primarily a social welfare and rights-based legislation aimed at correcting historical injustices faced by forest-dwelling communities. Consequently, the responsibility for its implementation and the issuance of operational guidelines lies with MoTA to ensure the protection of tribal interests and the recognition of individual and community forest rights, rather than the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change which focuses on conservation.

Option A is correct. In a federal system, power is distributed between the central government and the states. There can be disputes about the division of power or interpretation of the Constitution. An independent judiciary acts as an impartial umpire to settle these disputes and uphold the Constitution. It ensures that both the central government and the states function within their constitutional boundaries.The other options, while relevant to Indian polity, are not exclusive to federal systems


Option B is incorrect. The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units is a common feature in both federal and some unitary states with devolved power.

Option C is incorrect. The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties is not a defining characteristic of federalism. Political party affiliation doesn't necessarily determine the federal structure.

Option D is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights being enforceable by Courts of Law, while essential for a democracy, this feature exists even in some non-federal states.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended in 1996 to restrict a candidate from contesting from more than two constituencies in a single general election or bye-elections held simultaneously.

Statement 2 is Correct: In the 1991 Lok Sabha elections, Shri Devi Lal contested from three constituencies: Rohtak (Haryana), Sikar (Rajasthan), and Ferozepur (Punjab). This was permissible at the time as the two-constituency limit was only introduced in 1996.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is no provision in the Representation of the People Act or election rules that requires a candidate or their party to bear the cost of bye-elections. Currently, the expenditure for conducting bye-elections is borne by the respective State Governments and the Central Government through the Election Commission.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The "Right to the City" is not a formally agreed universal human right in international law. It is a normative and political concept. UN-Habitat uses the idea in the New Urban Agenda, but: it does not legally monitor binding national commitments.

Statement 2 is correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern, and enjoy cities, towns, and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right.

Statement 3 is correct. "Right to the City" is interpreted as an inclusive urban citizenship right. The concept says that all city dwellers, including: migrants, slum dwellers, residents of unauthorized colonies, have a claim to urban services and dignity. It views residents not as "encroachers" but as rights-bearing urban citizens who contribute to the city economy. Hence: denial of water, sanitation, waste management, etc. merely because a settlement is "unauthorized" is seen as violating the spirit of Right to the City. Indian courts have also held that basic services cannot be denied even to illegal settlements, as they are part of Article 21 – Right to Life.

Note: UPSC usually takes welfare centric approach in questions.

The right to privacy in India is not explicitly mentioned in a single article of the Constitution. However, it is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21.

This recognition came about through a landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2017, K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India. The court ruled that the right to privacy is an inseparable part of the right to life and personal liberty, and is protected under Article 21.


A constitutional government seeks to limit and regulate the exercise of political power by the government. Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government is conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors.

Therefore constitutional government helps to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The constitutional government provides a framework in which the government can be both responsible and representative managing conflicts, Protecting the rights, promoting participation, and maintaining the security of the citizens.

Statement 1 is Correct: The key difference lies in Parliamentary Supremacy. In the British model, Parliament is considered sovereign. This means its legislative powers are supreme, and its laws cannot be challenged by any other body. In India, the Constitution is supreme. Parliament's power to legislate is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can review laws passed by Parliament and strike them down if they violate the Constitution.

Statement 2 is also Correct: This is a specific example of the limitation on Parliament's power in India. The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has the authority to review amendments made to existing laws (Acts) and determine if they are constitutional. This power of judicial review ensures the Constitution remains the supreme law.

The exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950 was a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

- The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949, but it came into effect on 26th January 1950. - The Preamble of the Constitution, adopted in 1949, defined India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic." - The terms "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble much later, through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Therefore, on 26th January 1950, India wasn't yet classified as "Socialist" or "Secular" in its constitution.


Statement 1 is Incorrect: The recommendation to designate a minister and a secretary solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform was made by the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966), not the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee (1949) focused on the reorganization of the machinery of the Central Government, the grouping of ministries, and the establishment of the Organisation and Methods (O&M) Division.

Statement 2 is Correct: In 1970, the Department of Personnel was established following the recommendations of the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966). It was initially placed under the Cabinet Secretariat, which functions under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. In 1985, it was reorganized into the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, which remains under the Prime Minister's charge.

Previously a Fundamental Right - Before 1978, the Indian Constitution guaranteed the right to property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. - This meant citizens had the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of their property. - Article 31 also ensured that the government couldn't take over private property without due compensation and for public purposes only.

Change in 1978 - The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 changed the status of the Right to Property. - Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were removed from the list of fundamental rights. - A new Article, 300-A, was introduced under Part XII of the Constitution.

Current Status: A legal right available to any person. - Article 300-A states, "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." - This means the government can still acquire private property, but only under legal authorization. - The law should be fair and reasonable, and the government has the power to decide the quantum of compensation.

* The correct answer is D. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

* The Preamble of the Indian Constitution sets out the guiding principles and objectives of the document. While it is an integral part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case), it cannot be directly enforced in a court of law.

* The Supreme Court of India has clarified that the Preamble can be used to interpret ambiguous provisions within the Constitution, but cannot be used to strike down laws as unconstitutional on its own. It serves as a guiding light for understanding the spirit and intent of the Constitution.

Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 37, the provisions contained in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) shall not be enforceable by any court. Unlike Fundamental Rights (Part III), they are non-justiciable.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 37 also mandates that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles when making laws. They serve as a guide for establishing social and economic democracy.

Bureaucracy, in India, refers to the permanent administrative machinery that carries out the day-to-day operations of the government. This includes implementing laws, policies, and programs formulated by the legislative and executive branches.