UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

YEAR ASKED IN

2023

Practice UPSC 2023 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 80 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export…

    Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II :Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    * Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047.

    * Statement II is correct: The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.

  2. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day…

    Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement 1 is correct: In India, the Constitution Day is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India and also it was celebrated to promote constitutional values among the citizens of India.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect: On 29 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

  3. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source…

    Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Statement 1 is Correct: Gold mining is poisoning Amazon forests with mercury. To separate the gold, miners mix liquid mercury into the sediment, which forms a coating around the gold.

    * Statement 2 is Correct: Fly ash generated by TPPs is one of the ways mercury is released into the environment. Fly ash is usually disposed of in ash ponds in the form of ash slurry, forming an aquatic ecosystem of its own. Coal-based TPPs are the major source of mercury – the ninth most toxic element found on earth — emissions into the environment. Mercury contributed over 80 percent of emissions released by the TPPs, according to 2016 estimates by the Delhi-based think-tank Centre for Science and Environment.

    * Statement 3 is Incorrect: While mercury is unquestionably toxic, toxicology works on the principle of dose: "The dose makes the poison." Hence, scientific bodies define reference doses (RfD) or tolerable intake levels, not zero exposure. WHO's Provisional Tolerable Weekly Intake (PTWI) for methylmercury (from fish) → 1.6 µg/kg body weight/week and 1 µg/litre for total mercury in drinking water. If no safe level truly existed: Mercury would be completely banned, not regulated.

    NOTE: UPSC usually considers extreme statement to be wrong.

  4. Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment…

    Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Car Crash Detection and Airbag Deployment: Modern cars use accelerometers as part of a complex system to detect rapid deceleration that can indicate a crash. The accelerometer data, along with other sensors, triggers the airbag deployment almost instantaneously.

    * Laptop Fall Detection and Hard Drive Shut Off: Some laptops use accelerometers to detect a sudden fall or impact. This can trigger the hard drive heads to retract or park, protecting the drive from potential damage.

    * Smartphone Tilt Detection and Display Rotation: Accelerometers are widely used in smartphones to detect orientation changes (tilt). This allows the device to automatically switch the display between portrait and landscape mode depending on how you hold the phone.

    * In all these scenarios, the accelerometer detects changes in acceleration or tilt, which is then used by the system to perform the specific action.

    Therefore, all three statements are correct.

  5. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is…

    Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in 1974 held that the dissolution of the state legislative assembly would not be a ground for preventing the holding of the election on the expiry of the term of the President. Nor can it be grounds to suggest that the election to the office of the President could be held only after the election to the state is held, where the Legislative Assembly of a State is dissolved.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe any time limit within which the President has to decide concerning a bill presented to him/her for his/her assent. Thus the President of India can simply keep the bills pending for an indefinite period.

  6. Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than…

    Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. This is true because P waves, also known as Primary waves, are the first to be recorded by a seismograph during an earthquake. They are faster and hence, reach the recording instrument before the S waves.

    Statement 2 is correct: P waves are longitudinal or compressional waves, which means the particles in these waves vibrate in the same direction as the wave propagation. On the other hand, S waves, or Secondary waves, are transverse waves, where the particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Therefore, both statements are correct.

    ![Seismic Waves](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Seismic_Wave_a4aecb1b6e.jpg)

  7. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt…

    Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: Prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation (not Prophylactic calcium) given to children, adolescents, women of reproductive age and pregnant women, irrespective of anaemia is a key continued intervention.

    * Statement 2 is correct: Promotion and monitoring of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) for newborns across all health facilities will be carried out for improving the infants iron reserves up to 6 months after birth. Simultaneously, all birth attendants should make an effort to ensure early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.

    * Statement 3 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat, also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy. Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme.

    * Statement 4 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for non-nutritional causes of anaemia with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

  8. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the…

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Assertion is Correct: The 'Trade and Technology Council' (TTC) was launched by the United States and the European Union during the EU-US Summit in Brussels on June 15, 2021. The Reason is Incorrect: The USA and EU do not aim to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control; instead, the TTC aims to foster cooperation on digital transformation, supply chain resilience, and shared democratic values. Since the Reason is incorrect, it does not serve as an explanation for the Assertion.

  9. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India announces Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 22 mandated crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane. Niger seed is one of the 14 Kharif crops for which MSP is officially provided by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

    Statement 2 is correct: Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) is an oilseed crop primarily grown during the Kharif season in India. It is a minor oilseed crop that can grow in poor soils and is often cultivated in hilly and tribal areas.

    Statement 3 is correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by various tribal communities, particularly in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh. Apart from cooking, the oil is also used for lighting, lubrication, and in the preparation of soaps and medicines.

  10. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered…

    Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

    1. AConducting 'Open Market Operations'
    2. BOversight of settlement and payment systems
    3. CDebt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
    4. DRegulating the functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Sterilization refers to the process by which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) neutralizes the impact of foreign exchange inflows or outflows on the domestic money supply. When there is a surge in foreign capital inflows, the RBI often buys foreign currency (like US Dollars) to prevent the Indian Rupee from appreciating excessively. This purchase injects an equivalent amount of Indian Rupees into the banking system, increasing liquidity and potentially causing inflation. To 'sterilize' or offset this effect, the RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMO) by selling government securities in the open market to absorb the excess liquidity. Conversely, during capital outflows, the RBI sells foreign currency and buys government securities to maintain liquidity. Thus, Open Market Operations are the primary instrument used for sterilization to maintain monetary stability.

  11. Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The…

    Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Statement 1 is correct. According to data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and other agricultural databases, India does have more arable land than China. As of recent data, India's arable land is approximately 157 million hectares, whereas China's arable land is around 119 million hectares.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect. While India has a substantial amount of irrigated land, China has implemented extensive irrigation projects and has a higher proportion of its arable land irrigated. As a percentage of arable land, China's irrigated land is higher than that of India.

    * Statement 3 is also incorrect. China has a higher average agricultural productivity per hectare compared to India. This is due to several factors, including technological advancements, better infrastructure, and more effective agricultural practices in China.

  12. Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel…

    Consider the following heavy industries : 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Green hydrogen is the hydrogen produced through electrolysis of water using electricity from renewable sources.

    * Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three of the mentioned heavy industries.

    * Green hydrogen can be used in the production of ammonia, which is a key component for many fertilizers. Fertilizer production is energy-intensive and often relies on fossil fuels, particularly natural gas. By using green hydrogen as a clean energy source, the carbon emissions from this industry can be significantly reduced

    * Green hydrogen can be used in oil refineries to process crude oil into various products, including gasoline, diesel, and jet fuel. This can help to reduce the carbon emissions from the refining process.

    * The steel industry is one of the largest industrial emitters of carbon dioxide. Green hydrogen can be used in place of coal in the steelmaking process, significantly reducing the industry's carbon emissions.

    ![Green Hydrogen](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Green_Hydrogen_aec0f13997.png)

  13. Consider the following statements: Statement-I :Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.…

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I :Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II :The 'Arab Peace Initiative' Mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement I is correct: Several Arab states, including Egypt, Jordan, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Morocco, and Sudan, have established diplomatic relations with Israel.

    * Statement II is incorrect: The Arab Peace Initiative, mediated by Saudi Arabia, was endorsed by the Arab League but not signed by Israel. It outlines a path towards peace in exchange for Israeli concessions, but Israel has not formally accepted all its terms.

  14. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects…

    Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

    1. AFishing cat
    2. BOrangutan
    3. COtter
    4. DSloth bear
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Orangutans are known for their intelligence and tool-use capabilities. They have been observed using sticks in various ways, including scraping insects from holes in trees and logs, extracting honey from beehives, and even using leaves as utensils.

  15. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health…

    Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is Correct: Affordable housing is one of the three primary focus areas of the UNOPS S3i initiative, aimed at addressing the global shortage of high-quality, sustainable housing.

    Statement 2 is Incorrect: Mass rapid transport is not included in the specific investment mandate of the S3i initiative, which focuses exclusively on housing, energy, and health infrastructure.

    Statement 3 is Correct: Health care (specifically health infrastructure) is a core focus area for S3i to improve access to essential medical services in underserved regions.

    Statement 4 is Correct: Renewable energy is a key focus area for S3i, supporting the global transition to clean energy and climate-resilient infrastructure.

    SK Tip: The UNOPS S3i initiative has a strictly defined mandate focusing on only three sectors: Affordable Housing, Renewable Energy, and Health Infrastructure. While other sectors like transport are vital for the SDGs, they do not fall under the S3i investment umbrella.

  16. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1.…

    Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is Incorrect: The electoral college for the Presidential election consists only of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry). Nominated members of either House of Parliament or State Assemblies are not eligible. Currently, the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir is not included in the electoral college under Article 54.

    Statement 2 is Incorrect: The value of an MLA's vote is calculated by dividing the total population of the State (based on the 1971 Census) by the total number of elected members in the Legislative Assembly, and then dividing the result by 1000. A higher number of elective seats (the denominator) does not automatically mean a higher vote value; rather, it depends on the ratio of the population to the number of seats.

    Statement 3 is Incorrect: Based on the 1971 Census data used for elections, the value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131, whereas the value of the vote of each MLA of Kerala is 152. Therefore, the value is higher for Kerala.

    Statement 4 is Correct: The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8). This is because the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater than the corresponding ratio in Arunachal Pradesh.

  17. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James…

    With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

    1. AArchaeological excavations
    2. BEstablishment of English Press in Colonial India
    3. CEstablishment of Churches in Princely States
    4. DConstruction of railways in Colonial India
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Alexander Rea (1858-1924) was a British archaeologist who worked mainly in South British India. He is known for unearthing a sarcophagus from the hillocks of Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu.

    * Albert Henry Longhurst (1876-1955) was a British archaeologist and art historian, working in India and Ceylon. From 1927 to 1931 he was in-charge of the systematic digging of Nagarjunakonda.

    * Robert Sewell (1845-1925) worked in the civil service of the Madras Presidency during the period of colonial rule in India. Sewell undertook archaeological work at the Buddhist stupa at Amaravati, which had already been largely destroyed prior to his arrival. The site had previously been surveyed by Colin Mackenzie and Walter Elliot (1803-1887)

    * James Burgess (1832-1916), was the founder of the Indian Antiquary in 1872 and an important archaeologist of British India in the 19th century. From 1886-89 he was Director General, Archaeological Survey of India.

    * Walter Elliot (1803-1887), visited the Amaravati site in 1854, collecting sculpture panels that later became crucial for understanding South Indian Buddhist art.

  18. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

    With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

    1. Acapital cities
    2. Bports
    3. Ccentres of iron-and-steel making
    4. Dshrines of Jain tirthankaras
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were prominent ancient port cities in South India during the Sangam period (c. 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE). They played a vital role in maritime trade between India and the Roman Empire, as well as Southeast Asia.

    * Korkai: Located at the mouth of the Thamirabarani River in present-day Tamil Nadu, it was an important port of the Pandya dynasty. It was particularly famous for its pearl fishery. * Poompuhar (also known as Kaveripattinam): Situated at the mouth of the Kaveri River, it was the chief port of the Early Cholas. It is vividly described in Sangam literature (like *Silappadikaram*) as a bustling hub of international trade. * Muchiri (Muziris): Located on the Malabar Coast (modern-day Kerala), it was a major port of the Chera dynasty. It was the primary center for the pepper trade with the Roman Empire.

    Note: In Sangam literature, the term 'Puhar' specifically refers to a river mouth or a harbor town where goods were discharged.

  19. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra…

    Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

    1. ADevaraya I
    2. BMallikarjuna
    3. CVira Vijaya
    4. DVirupaksha
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Devaraya I, around 1410 A.D., got a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital.

    * The account provided by Nuniz gives details of the projects undertaken by Deva Raya I that brought prosperity to the Kingdom. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  20. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent…

    In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

    1. AAndhra
    2. BGandhara
    3. CKalinga
    4. DMagadha
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Dhanyakataka was an ancient city situated in the region of South India (Andhra Pradesh).

    * It was a significant Buddhist centre, particularly associated with the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism during ancient times.

    * The Mahasanghika sect (considered to be the origin of Mahayana Sect) was one of the early Buddhist schools that emerged in India, and Dhanyakataka played a crucial role in its development and propagation.

  21. Consider the following Statements : Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of…

    Consider the following Statements : Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement I is correct In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. Switzerland is consistently the world's leading gold-exporting country based on value. (Please note: The list is dynamic & keeps varying yearly)

    * Statement II is not correct. The United States is way out in front as the country with the largest gold reserves in the world at 8,000 tonnes (as of 2024).

    * In India, the largest resources of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3% ), Jharkhand (2 %). The remaining 2% resources of ore are located in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. (PIB 2021)

    * India is one of the largest gold importers, sourcing 800-1,000 tons annually, mainly from Switzerland, the UAE, and South Africa. Imports are driven by high domestic demand for jewelry and investment. Gold exports, primarily in jewelry, target the US, UAE, and Hong Kong, supporting India's trade through its jewelry manufacturing sector.

  22. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa…

    With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of a stupa predates Buddhism; it originally served as a pre-Buddhist burial mound. However, it was later adopted and popularized by Buddhism as a key religious monument.

    Statement 2 is correct: A stupa typically housed relics of the Buddha or revered monks, serving as a sacred repository.

    Statement 3 is correct: Stupas also functioned as votive and commemorative structures, built to honor significant events or express devotion.

  23. With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements : 1. It can be…

    With reference to green hydrogen, Consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Green hydrogen is any hydrogen that is produced from renewable energy.

    * Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen can be used as a direct fuel for internal combustion engines, replacing conventional fuels like gasoline or diesel.

    * Statement 2 is correct: Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas and used as a fuel for various applications like heating, power generation, and industrial processes.

    * Statement 3 is correct: Green hydrogen can be used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles, providing a clean and efficient alternative to traditional fossil fuel-powered vehicles.

    Therefore, all three statements regarding the uses of green hydrogen are correct.

  24. Invasive species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one…

    Invasive species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

    1. AThe International Union for Conservation of Nature
    2. BThe United Nations Environment Programme
    3. CThe United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development.
    4. DThe World Wide Fund for Nature
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organised under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, option A is the correct answer.

  25. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the ‘Micro Small…

    Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 Only
    2. B2 Only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Following the Union Budget 2025-26 and the subsequent notification by the Ministry of MSME (effective April 1, 2025), the classification criteria were significantly revised to account for inflation and encourage scaling. A Medium enterprise is now defined as an unit where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed ₹125 crore and the annual turnover does not exceed ₹500 crore. Even under the previous 2020 definition (which set the limit at ₹50 crore investment), the range of ₹15–25 crore mentioned in the statement does not align with the legal thresholds.

    Statement 2 is correct: Under the RBI Master Direction on Priority Sector Lending (PSL), all bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are eligible for classification under the priority sector. While Micro enterprises have specific sub-targets within the PSL framework, credit extended to Medium enterprises counts toward a bank's overall Priority Sector achievement.

  26. Consider the following pairs : Objects in space: Description 1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of…

    Consider the following pairs : Objects in space: Description 1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Pair 1 is incorrect: Cepheids are actually stars that brighten and dim periodically, not giant clouds of dust and gas.

    * Pair 2 is incorrect: Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas in space, not stars that brighten and dim periodically. Thus, the first two pairs are reversed.

    * Pair 3 is correct: Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that are formed when massive stars exhaust their fuel and collapse.

    * So out of the 3 pairs given, only 1 pair (pair 3) is correctly matched.

  27. Consider the following statements : Statement-I :India’s public sector health care system largely focuses…

    Consider the following statements : Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement-I is Correct: India's public healthcare system has historically prioritized curative care through hospital-based services, while preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative services (such as early screening, health education, and post-treatment recovery) receive significantly less budgetary and structural emphasis.

    Statement-II is Correct: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, 'Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries' are listed under the State List (Entry 6). This decentralized framework makes State governments primarily responsible for the organization and delivery of health services.

    Relationship: While both statements are factually accurate, Statement-II describes the administrative and constitutional division of power, which does not serve as the reason for the curative-heavy nature of the system described in Statement-I. The focus on curative care is a result of historical policy choices, infrastructure development patterns, and funding models rather than the fact that States manage the services. Therefore, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

  28. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2.…

    Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This body is a constitutional body. It was given constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 338B into the Indian Constitution.

    * The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

    * The National Law Commission: This body is not a constitutional body. It is an executive body established by an executive order of the Government of India.

    * The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 (replaced by the Consumer Protection Act 2019).

  29. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

    'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?

    1. AStudying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
    2. BStimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
    3. CPromoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
    4. DAssessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), are highly polymorphic DNA sequences that are widely used in the case of studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna.

    * Microsatellite DNA analysis is a powerful tool for studying genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary relationships among different species of animals.

    * The variations in the number of repeated DNA sequences in microsatellites can provide insights into the genetic similarities and differences between species, which can be used to infer their evolutionary relationships.

  30. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :…

    With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mundra Thermal Power Plant employs a closed-cycle induced draft circulating cooling water system that utilises seawater. Seawater is drawn from the Gulf of Kutch through robust glass reinforced pipes of significant diameter. In addition, purified seawater from a reverse osmosis plant is utilised by various supplementary systems.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect: According to recent research by WRI (World Resources Institute), 40 percent of India's thermal power plants are situated in regions experiencing significant water stress. This poses a challenge as these plants rely on water for cooling purposes. The scarcity of water is already causing disruptions in electricity generation in these areas, with 14 out of India's 20 largest thermal utilities having experienced at least one shutdown between 2013 and 2016 due to water shortages.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect: India has a total of 269 Thermal Power Plants, with 138 of them being owned by the public sector and the remaining 131 owned by the private sector.

Mains Q&A 80

  1. Vinod is an honest and sincere IAS officer. Recently, he has taken over as Managing Director of the State Road Transport Corporation, his sixth transfer in the past three years. His peers acknowledge his vast knowledge, affability and uprightness. The Chairman of the State Road Transport Corporation is a powerful politician and is very close to the Chief Minister. Vinod comes to know about many alleged irregularities of the Corporation and the high-handedness of the Chairman in financial matters. A Board Member of the Corporation belonging to the Opposition Party meets Vinod and hands over a few documents along with a video recording in which the Chairman appears to be demanding bribe for placing a huge order for the supply of QMR tyres. Vinod recollects the Chairman expediting clearing of pending bills of QMR tyres. Vinod confronts the Board Member as to why he is shying away from exposing the Chairman with the so-called solid proof he has with him. The member informs him that the Chairman refuses to yield to his threats. He adds that Vinod may earn recognition and public support if he himself exposes the Chairman. Further, he tells Vinod that once his party comes to power, Vinod’s professional growth would be assured. Vinod is aware that he may be penalized if he exposes the Chairman and may further be transferred to a distant place. He knows that the Opposition Party stands a better chance of coming to power in the forthcoming elections. However, he also realizes that the Board Member is trying to use him for his own political gains. (a) As a conscientious civil servant, evaluate the options available to Vinod. (b) In the light of the above case, comment upon the ethical issues that may arise due to the politicization of bureaucracy.

  2. You hold a responsible position in a ministry in the government. One day in the morning you received a call from the school of your 11-year-old son that you are required to come and meet the Principal. You proceed to the school and find your son in the Principal’s office. The Principal informs you that your son had been found wandering aimlessly in the grounds during the time classes were in progress. The class teacher further informs you that your son has lately become a loner and did not respond to questions in the class, he had also been unable to perform well in the football trials held recently. You bring your son back from the school and in the evening, you along with your wife try to find out the reasons for your son’s changed behaviour. After repeated cajoling, your son shares that some children had been making fun of him in the class as well as in the WhatsApp group of the students by calling him stunted, duh and a frog. He tells you the names of a few children who are the main culprits but pleads with you to let the matter rest. After a few days, during a sporting event, where you and your wife have gone to watch your son play, one of your colleague’s son shows you a video in which students have caricatured your son. Further, he also points out to the perpetrators who were sitting in the stands. You purposefully walk past them with your son and go home. Next day, you find on social media, a video denigrating you, your son and even your wife, stating that you engaged in physical bullying of children on the sports field. The video became viral on social media. Your friends and colleagues began calling you to find out the details. One of your juniors advised you to make a counter video giving the background and explaining that nothing had happened on the field. You, in turn posted a video which you have captured during the sporting event, identifying the likely perpetrators who were responsible for your son’s predicament. You have also narrated what has actually happened in the field and made attempts to bring out the adverse effects of the misuse of social media. (a) Based on the above case study, discuss the ethical issues involved in the use of social media. (b) Discuss the pros and cons of using social media by you to put across the facts to counter the fake propaganda against your family.

  3. At 9 pm on Saturday evening, Rashika, a Joint Secretary, was still engrossed in her work in her office. Her husband, Vikram, is an executive in an MNC and frequently out of town in connection with his work. Their two children aged 5 and 3 are looked after by their domestic helper. At 9:30 pm her superior, Mr. Suresh calls her and asks her to prepare a detailed note on an important matter to be discussed in a meeting in the Ministry. She realises that she will have to work on Sunday to finish the additional task given by her superior. She reflects on how she had looked forward to this posting and had worked long hours for months to achieve it. She had kept the welfare of people uppermost in discharging her duties. She feels that she has not done enough justice to her family and she has not fulfilled her duties in discharging essential social obligations. Even as recently as last month she had to leave her sick child in the nanny’s care as she had to work in the office. Now, she feels that she must draw a line, beyond which her personal life should take precedence over her professional responsibilities. She thinks that there should be reasonable limits to the work ethics such as punctuality, hard work, dedication to duty and selfless service. (a) Discuss the ethical issues involved in this case. (b) Briefly describe at least four laws that have been enacted by the Government with respect to providing a healthy, safe and equitable working environment for women. (c) Imagine you are in a similar situation. What suggestions would you make to mitigate such working conditions?

  4. A landslide occurred in the middle of the night on 20th July, 2023 in a remote mountain hamlet, approximately 60 kilometres from Uttarkashi. The landslide was caused by torrential rains and has resulted in large-scale destruction of property and life. You, as District Magistrate of that area, have rushed to the spot with a team of doctors, NGOs, media and police along with numerous support staff to oversee the rescue operations. A man came running to you with a request for urgent medical help for his pregnant wife who is in labour and is losing blood. You directed your medical team to examine his wife. They return and convey to you that this woman needs blood transfusion immediately. Upon enquiry, you come to know that a few blood collection bags and blood group test kits are available in the ambulance accompanying your team. Few people of your team have already volunteered to donate blood. Being a physician who has graduated from AIIMS, you know that blood for transfusion needs to be procured only through a recognized blood bank. Your team members are divided on this issue; some favour transfusion, while some others oppose it. The doctors in the team are ready to facilitate the delivery provided they are not penalized for transfusion. Now you are in a dilemma. Your professional training emphasizes on prioritising service to humanity and saving lives of individuals. (a) What are the ethical issues involved in this case? (b) Evaluate the options available to you, being District Magistrate of the area.

  5. You are working as an executive in a nationalised bank for several years. One day one of your close colleagues tells you that her father is suffering from heart disease and needs surgery immediately to survive. She also tells you that she has no insurance and the operation will cost about Rs. 10 lakh. You are also aware of the fact that her husband is no more and that she is from a lower middle class family. You are empathetic about her situation. However, apart from expressing your sympathy, you do not have the resources to fund her. A few weeks later, you ask her about the well-being of her father and she informs you about his successful surgery and that he is recovering. She then confides in you that the bank manager was kind enough to facilitate the release of Rs. 10 lakh from a dormant account of someone to pay for the operation with a promise that it should be confidential and be repaid at the earliest. She has already started paying it back and will continue to do so until it is all returned. (a) What are the ethical issues involved? (b) Evaluate the behaviour of the bank manager from an ethical point of view. (c) How would you react to the situation?

  6. Given below are three quotations of great thinkers. What do each of these quotations convey to you in the present context? (a) “The simplest acts of kindness are by far more powerful than a thousand heads bowing in prayer.” – Mahatma Gandhi (b) “To awaken the people, it is the women who must be awakened. Once she is on the move, the family moves, the village moves, the nation moves.” – Jawaharlal Nehru (c) “Do not hate anybody, because that hatred that comes out from you must, in the long run, come back to you. If you love, that love will come back to you, completing the circle.” – Swami Vivekananda