GK Questions for UPSC: 500+ Practice MCQs with Answers

GK Questions for UPSC: Practice MCQs with Answers

The fastest way to test your UPSC preparation is through MCQs. Not random trivia — targeted questions that test the exact knowledge pattern UPSC uses.

These questions are organized subject-wise with explanations. The explanation is as important as the answer. Don’t just mark right or wrong; understand why.

Disaster Management: UPSC Complete Notes for GS III

How to Use These Questions

UPSC Prelims has two papers: GS Paper I (100 questions, 200 marks) and CSAT (80 questions, 200 marks — qualifying at 33%). These questions are for GS Paper I.

Difficulty marking:

• ⭐ Basic (direct fact)
• ⭐⭐ Moderate (application + fact)
• ⭐⭐⭐ Advanced (tricky, UPSC-style)

Section 1: Indian Polity MCQs

Q1. ⭐ Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?

(a) Article 12 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21

Answer: (b) Article 14

Explanation: Article 14 states “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.” Articles 14–18 cover the Right to Equality as a Fundamental Right. Article 12 defines “State.” Article 19 covers freedoms. Article 21 is Right to Life.

Q2. ⭐⭐ The ‘basic structure doctrine’ of the Indian Constitution was established in which case?

(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) (c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) (d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992)

Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a 13-judge bench held by a 7-6 majority that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot destroy its “basic structure.” The basic structure includes supremacy of the Constitution, republic and democratic forms, secular character, separation of powers, federal character, and judicial review.

Q3. ⭐ The President of India is elected by:

(a) Direct election by citizens (b) Members of both Houses of Parliament only (c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of all State Legislative Assemblies and UTs with legislatures (d) Members of the Rajya Sabha only

Answer: (c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of all State Legislative Assemblies and UTs with legislatures

Explanation: Article 54 of the Constitution provides for the Presidential election by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of states and UTs with legislatures (Delhi, J&K, Puducherry). Nominated members don’t vote. Rajya Sabha members vote but alone they’re insufficient.

Q4. ⭐⭐ Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Federal system?

(a) Dual polity (b) Written Constitution (c) Single citizenship (d) Dual judiciary

Answer: (d) Dual judiciary

Explanation: India has a unified single integrated judiciary — Supreme Court at the apex with High Courts and subordinate courts below. The US has a dual judiciary (federal courts + state courts). India has: dual polity (Union + states), written Constitution, single citizenship (unlike US dual citizenship), and single election commission. These are features of Indian federalism with unitary features.

Q5. ⭐⭐⭐ Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. They are justiciable — courts can enforce them
2. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution
3. They aim to establish a welfare state
4. Article 44 directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong — DPSPs are NON-justiciable, meaning courts cannot enforce them (Article 37). Statement 2 is correct — Part IV (Articles 36–51). Statement 3 is correct — DPSPs guide state policy towards welfare objectives. Statement 4 is correct — Article 44 directs a Uniform Civil Code.

Q6. ⭐ The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:

(a) Members of Lok Sabha only (b) Members of both Houses of Parliament (c) President of India (d) Prime Minister

Answer: (a) Members of Lok Sabha only

Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by a simple majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. The convention is that the Speaker is from the ruling party/coalition and the Deputy Speaker from the opposition, though this isn’t constitutionally mandated. The Speaker chairs Lok Sabha sessions and has the casting vote in ties.

Q7. ⭐⭐ Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Second Schedule (b) Third Schedule (c) Fourth Schedule (d) Fifth Schedule

Answer: (c) Fourth Schedule

Explanation: The Fourth Schedule allocates seats to states and UTs in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Uttar Pradesh has the most seats (31). The Second Schedule deals with salaries of President, MPs, judges etc. Third Schedule has forms of oaths. Fifth Schedule deals with tribal areas.

Q8. ⭐ Article 370 of the Indian Constitution was related to:

(a) Scheduled Tribes’ protection (b) Special status of Jammu & Kashmir (c) Emergency provisions (d) Protection of minorities

Answer: (b) Special status of Jammu & Kashmir

Explanation: Article 370 granted special autonomous status to J&K, limiting Parliament’s power to legislate for J&K except in specified matters. In August 2019, the government effectively abrogated Article 370 through a Presidential Order, converting J&K into two Union Territories.

Section 2: Indian History MCQs

Q9. ⭐ Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire?

(a) Bindusara (b) Ashoka (c) Chandragupta Maurya (d) Bimbisara

Answer: (c) Chandragupta Maurya

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire around 322 BCE with the help of Chanakya (Kautilya). He defeated the Nanda dynasty and later pushed back Seleucus Nicator (Alexander’s general). Bindusara was his son; Ashoka was his grandson.

Q10. ⭐⭐ The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was carried out under which Viceroy?

(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Minto (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Hardinge

Answer: (a) Lord Curzon

Explanation: Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal in 1905 on the ostensible grounds of administrative efficiency but actually to divide the nationalist movement along Hindu-Muslim lines. It created East Bengal (Muslim majority) and West Bengal. The partition sparked the Swadeshi Movement. It was annulled in 1911 under Lord Hardinge.

Q11. ⭐⭐ The Quit India Movement was launched in:

(a) 1940 (b) 1942 (c) 1944 (d) 1946

Answer: (b) 1942

Explanation: The Quit India Movement (August Kranti) was launched on August 8, 1942, by Mahatma Gandhi at the All India Congress Committee session in Bombay. The slogan “Do or Die” was given. Gandhi gave the movement the directive “Do or Die.” The British immediately arrested Gandhi and all Congress leaders.

Q12. ⭐ Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) was undertaken in:

(a) 1928 (b) 1930 (c) 1932 (d) 1934

Answer: (b) 1930

Explanation: Gandhi started the Dandi March on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram, Ahmedabad. He reached Dandi (Navsari, Gujarat) on April 6, 1930, to break the salt law. The march was 241 miles (388 km) and took 24 days. It launched Civil Disobedience Movement II.

Q13. ⭐⭐⭐ Which of the following is correctly matched — Governor-General and their significant action?

(a) Lord Cornwallis — Permanent Settlement (b) Lord Wellesley — Doctrine of Lapse (c) Lord Dalhousie — Subsidiary Alliance (d) Lord Canning — Partition of Bengal

Answer: (a) Lord Cornwallis — Permanent Settlement

Explanation: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in 1793 (Bengal, Bihar, Odisha), fixing land revenue permanently. Lord Wellesley introduced Subsidiary Alliance. Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse (annexation of states without natural heirs). Lord Curzon (not Canning) partitioned Bengal in 1905.

Q14. ⭐ The Indian National Congress was founded in:

(a) 1883 (b) 1885 (c) 1887 (d) 1890

Answer: (b) 1885

Explanation: The Indian National Congress was founded on December 28, 1885, in Bombay (Mumbai) by A.O. Hume (a retired British ICS officer), Dadabhai Naoroji, and Dinshaw Wacha. The first session was presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee. Hume is regarded as the “father of the Congress.”

Section 3: Indian Geography MCQs

Q15. ⭐ The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following Indian states?

(a) Rajasthan, UP, Bihar, West Bengal (b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, WB, Tripura, Mizoram (c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, AP, Tamil Nadu (d) Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar

Answer: (b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, WB, Tripura, Mizoram

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It does NOT pass through Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, or South Indian states.

Q16. ⭐⭐ Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?

(a) Gandak (b) Kosi (c) Son (d) Ghaghra

Answer: (b) Kosi

Explanation: The Kosi River is called the “Sorrow of Bihar” because it frequently changes course and causes devastating floods in North Bihar. It’s a major tributary of the Ganga. Damodar River is called the “Sorrow of Bengal/West Bengal.” The Mahanadi is sometimes called the “Sorrow of Odisha.”

Q17. ⭐ The Brahmaputra River enters India from:

(a) China through Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Myanmar

Answer: (a) China through Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The Brahmaputra originates in the Manasarovar Lake region in Tibet (China) and flows east through Tibet as the Tsangpo. It makes a dramatic U-turn around the Namcha Barwa peak and enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, where it’s called the Dihang. It enters Assam as the Brahmaputra.

Q18. ⭐⭐ Which of the following is the correct sequence of rivers from north to south on the western coast of India?

(a) Narmada, Tapti, Mahi, Sabarmati (b) Sabarmati, Mahi, Narmada, Tapti (c) Mahi, Sabarmati, Narmada, Tapti (d) Tapti, Narmada, Mahi, Sabarmati

Answer: (b) Sabarmati, Mahi, Narmada, Tapti

Explanation: Moving from north to south along India’s west coast: Sabarmati (originates Aravalli), Mahi, Narmada (largest west-flowing river), Tapti/Tapi. All four are west-flowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea. Narmada flows through the rift valley between Vindhya and Satpura ranges.

Q19. ⭐⭐⭐ Consider these statements about Indian monsoon:

1. The southwest monsoon enters India from two branches — Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
2. The Bay of Bengal branch is the first to arrive over mainland India
3. Western disturbances bring winter rainfall to North India
4. The retreating monsoon (northeast monsoon) brings maximum rainfall to Tamil Nadu

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) All four (d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (c) All four

Explanation: All four statements are correct. Southwest monsoon has two branches (Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal). The Bay of Bengal branch actually arrives earlier — it reaches Andaman & Nicobar in late May and hits the northeast before the Arabian Sea branch reaches the northwest. Western disturbances are cyclonic systems from the Mediterranean that bring winter rainfall to Punjab, Haryana, and UP. The northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) brings critical rainfall to Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Q20. ⭐ India’s largest freshwater lake is:

(a) Dal Lake (b) Wular Lake (c) Chilika Lake (d) Vembanad Lake

Answer: (b) Wular Lake

Explanation: Wular Lake in J&K is India’s largest freshwater lake. Chilika Lake in Odisha is India’s largest coastal lagoon (saltwater/brackish) and the largest lagoon in Asia. Dal Lake is a famous lake in Srinagar. Vembanad (Kerala) is a backwater lake. For freshwater: Wular. For lagoon/coastal: Chilika.

Section 4: Indian Economy MCQs

Q21. ⭐ India’s GDP is measured at:

(a) Market prices only (b) Factor cost only (c) Both market prices and basic prices (d) Purchasing power parity only

Answer: (c) Both market prices and basic prices

Explanation: Since 2015, India shifted from measuring GDP at “factor cost” to “basic prices” as recommended by the UN System of National Accounts (SNA) 2008. GDP at market prices = GDP at basic prices + taxes on products – subsidies on products. The Central Statistics Office (now MoSPI) compiles National Income data.

Q22. ⭐⭐ The FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act) was enacted in:

(a) 2000 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2007

Answer: (b) 2003

Explanation: The FRBM Act 2003 mandated fiscal discipline — the central government was required to eliminate revenue deficit and bring fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP by specific deadlines. It aimed to institutionalize fiscal prudence. The N.K. Singh Committee (2017) reviewed it and recommended a Debt-to-GDP target (60%) instead of just deficit targets.

Q23. ⭐ The Green Revolution in India was associated with:

(a) M.S. Swaminathan (b) Norman Borlaug (c) Both (d) C. Subramaniam

Answer: (c) Both

Explanation: Norman Borlaug (American scientist, Nobel Prize 1970) developed the high-yielding variety (HYV) dwarf wheat. M.S. Swaminathan (Indian geneticist, “Father of India’s Green Revolution”) introduced these varieties in India in the 1960s with the support of C. Subramaniam (Agriculture Minister). The Green Revolution transformed Punjab, Haryana, and western UP into India’s breadbasket.

Q24. ⭐⭐ India’s balance of payments deficit is financed by:

(a) Foreign Direct Investment (b) Foreign Portfolio Investment (c) External Commercial Borrowings (d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: The Current Account deficit (trade deficit + invisibles) is financed by the Capital Account. Capital Account inflows include FDI (long-term, productive), FPI (short-term, volatile), External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), NRI deposits, and official borrowings. India’s current account deficit widened after 2022 due to global commodity price rises.

Q25. ⭐⭐⭐ Which of the following is correctly matched regarding Indian banking?

(a) NABARD — National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development — 1982 (b) SIDBI — Small Industries Development Bank of India — 1995 (c) EXIM Bank — Export-Import Bank of India — 1990 (d) NHB — National Housing Bank — 2000

Answer: (a) NABARD — National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development — 1982

Explanation: NABARD was established in 1982 on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. SIDBI was established in 1990 (not 1995). EXIM Bank was established in 1982 (same year as NABARD, not 1990). NHB was established in 1988 (not 2000).

Q26. ⭐ The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented in India on:

(a) April 1, 2017 (b) July 1, 2017 (c) October 1, 2017 (d) January 1, 2018

Answer: (b) July 1, 2017

Explanation: GST was launched on midnight of June 30-July 1, 2017, in a special Parliament session. It replaced a cascade of indirect taxes (excise duty, service tax, VAT, CST, etc.). India adopted a four-rate structure: 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%. The GST Council, chaired by Union Finance Minister with state ministers, decides rates.

Section 5: Indian Environment & Ecology MCQs

Q27. ⭐ The Paris Agreement on Climate Change aims to limit global temperature rise to:

(a) 1°C above pre-industrial levels (b) 1.5–2°C above pre-industrial levels (c) 2.5°C above pre-industrial levels (d) 3°C above pre-industrial levels

Answer: (b) 1.5–2°C above pre-industrial levels

Explanation: The Paris Agreement (2015, COP21) aims to limit global average temperature increase to “well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels” and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. India ratified it in October 2016. Under its NDC (Nationally Determined Contribution), India committed to achieving 45% reduction in emission intensity of GDP by 2030 (updated).

Q28. ⭐⭐ India’s first Biosphere Reserve was:

(a) Sundarbans (b) Nilgiri (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Nanda Devi

Answer: (b) Nilgiri

Explanation: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was declared India’s first biosphere reserve in 1986. It covers parts of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala and includes Mudumalai, Nagarhole, Bandipur, and Wayanad national parks/wildlife sanctuaries. It was also the first Indian biosphere reserve to be included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (2000).

Q29. ⭐ The Chipko Movement was related to:

(a) Save rivers (b) Protect forests (c) Anti-dam movement (d) Clean air campaign

Answer: (b) Protect forests

Explanation: The Chipko Movement began in 1973 in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand (then UP). Women of Reni village, led by Gaura Devi, hugged (chipko = to cling) trees to prevent them from being felled. Sunderlal Bahuguna became the face of the movement nationally. It was a non-violent resistance to commercial logging of Himalayan forests.

Q30. ⭐⭐ The term ‘carbon credits’ is associated with:

(a) UNFCCC Paris Agreement (b) Kyoto Protocol’s market mechanisms (c) Montreal Protocol (d) Stockholm Convention

Answer: (b) Kyoto Protocol’s market mechanisms

Explanation: Carbon credits originated from the Kyoto Protocol’s (1997) market-based mechanisms: Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation (JI), and International Emissions Trading (IET). Each credit equals 1 tonne of CO2 equivalent. Countries/companies can earn credits by reducing emissions or buy them to offset. Paris Agreement has its own Article 6 market mechanisms.

Q31. ⭐⭐⭐ Consider these statements about National Parks in India:

1. No human activity is permitted inside a national park
2. Buffer zones around national parks allow limited human activity
3. Tribal communities inside national parks can be relocated only with their consent
4. India has more than 100 national parks

Which are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation: Statement 1: In national parks, no human activity (hunting, grazing, collection of forest produce) is permitted — unlike wildlife sanctuaries. Statement 2: Buffer zones allow regulated human activity. Statement 3: Forest Rights Act 2006 and Supreme Court directions require consent for tribal relocation. Statement 4: India has 106 national parks (as of 2026). All four are correct.

Section 6: Science & Technology MCQs

Q32. ⭐ ISRO’s Chandrayaan-3 successfully landed on the Moon’s south pole on:

(a) July 14, 2023 (b) August 23, 2023 (c) September 5, 2023 (d) October 1, 2023

Answer: (b) August 23, 2023

Explanation: Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander successfully soft-landed on the Moon’s south polar region on August 23, 2023 (18:04 IST). India became the FIRST country to land near the lunar south pole and the FOURTH country to achieve a soft lunar landing (after USA, USSR/Russia, China). The mission included Vikram lander and Pragyan rover. August 23 is now celebrated as National Space Day.

Q33. ⭐ The Aditya-L1 mission was launched to study:

(a) Mars (b) The Sun (c) Jupiter (d) Moon

Answer: (b) The Sun

Explanation: ISRO’s Aditya-L1 was launched on September 2, 2023. It’s India’s first dedicated solar mission. “Aditya” means Sun in Sanskrit. “L1” refers to Lagrange Point 1 — a gravitationally stable point between Earth and Sun approximately 1.5 million km from Earth. The spacecraft carries 7 payloads to study solar corona, solar wind, and space weather.

Q34. ⭐⭐ UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is managed by:

(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) (c) Ministry of Finance (d) State Bank of India

Answer: (b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

Explanation: UPI is operated and governed by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India), which was set up by RBI and Indian Banks’ Association. NPCI also manages IMPS, RuPay card network, NACH, and Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS). India processes more digital payments through UPI than any other country.

Q35. ⭐⭐ India’s first indigenously developed COVID-19 vaccine was:

(a) Covaxin (b) Covishield (c) Sputnik V (d) ZyCoV-D

Answer: (a) Covaxin

Explanation: Covaxin was developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research) and National Institute of Virology — making it India’s first indigenously developed COVID-19 vaccine. Covishield was developed by Oxford-AstraZeneca and manufactured by Serum Institute of India (licensed manufacturing, not indigenous development). Covaxin used an inactivated whole-virus platform.

Section 7: Indian Polity — Constitutional Bodies

Q36. ⭐ The Finance Commission of India is constituted under:

(a) Article 280 (b) Article 148 (c) Article 324 (d) Article 263

Answer: (a) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission. It’s constituted by the President every 5 years. The 15th Finance Commission (NK Singh) covered 2021-26. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes between Centre and states and grants-in-aid to states. Article 148 is CAG, Article 324 is Election Commission, Article 263 is Inter-State Council.

Q37. ⭐⭐ The Election Commission of India was established on:

(a) January 25, 1950 (b) January 26, 1950 (c) August 15, 1950 (d) November 26, 1949

Answer: (a) January 25, 1950

Explanation: The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950 — one day before the Constitution came into force. That’s why January 25 is celebrated as National Voters’ Day. The Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950 (Republic Day). Article 324 provides for the Election Commission.

Q38. ⭐⭐ CAG of India submits its report to:

(a) Prime Minister (b) Parliament directly (c) President, who then places it before Parliament (d) Ministry of Finance

Answer: (c) President, who then places it before Parliament

Explanation: The CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) submits audit reports to the President (for central government accounts) and to Governors for state accounts. The President/Governor then causes the reports to be laid before Parliament/State Legislature. The CAG doesn’t present directly to Parliament. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines CAG reports.

Section 8: Art, Culture & Heritage MCQs

Q39. ⭐ The Ajanta Caves are located in:

(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Explanation: Ajanta Caves are located in Aurangabad district, Maharashtra. They are rock-cut cave monuments (29 caves) dating from the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE. They contain Buddhist murals and sculptures. UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1983. Ajanta paintings depict Jataka tales.

Q40. ⭐⭐ The classical dance form Bharatanatyam originated from:

(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Bharatanatyam is one of India’s eight classical dance forms (recognized by Sangeet Natak Akademi). It originated in the temples of Tamil Nadu, performed by devadasis. Key modern exponents include Rukmini Devi Arundale who revived it. Other classical dances: Kathak (North India), Odissi (Odisha), Manipuri (Manipur), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Kathakali (Kerala), Sattriya (Assam).

Q41. ⭐ ‘Sangam Literature’ was written in:

(a) Sanskrit (b) Pali (c) Tamil (d) Prakrit

Answer: (c) Tamil

Explanation: Sangam literature is the body of classical Tamil literature (300 BCE – 300 CE). Three Sangams (academies of poets) were patronized by Pandyan kings at Madurai. The literature includes Tolkappiyam (grammar), Purananuru (war poems), Akananuru (love poems), Tirukkural (by Thiruvalluvar). It provides rich evidence of early Dravidian civilization.

Section 9: Awards & Honours MCQs

Q42. ⭐ The Bharat Ratna is India’s:

(a) Highest military award (b) Highest civilian award (c) Highest sports award (d) National Academy award

Answer: (b) Highest civilian award

Explanation: Bharat Ratna is India’s highest civilian honour, instituted in 1954. It’s awarded for exceptional service towards advancement of art, literature, science, or public service. It can be awarded posthumously (since 1966). There’s no provision for foreigners by default, but Nelson Mandela (1990) and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1987) have received it.

Q43. ⭐⭐ The Turing Award is given in the field of:

(a) Economics (b) Mathematics (c) Computing (d) Physics

Answer: (c) Computing

Explanation: The A.M. Turing Award, given by the Association for Computing Machinery (ACM), is considered the “Nobel Prize of Computing.” It’s given annually to individuals who have made lasting and major technical contributions to the computing community. Named after Alan Turing, the British mathematician and computer scientist.

Section 10: Current Affairs & Miscellaneous

Q44. ⭐ India’s G20 Presidency was held in:

(a) 2022 (b) 2023 (c) 2024 (d) 2025

Answer: (b) 2023

Explanation: India held the G20 Presidency from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023. The G20 Summit was held in New Delhi on September 9-10, 2023 at Bharat Mandapam. India’s G20 theme was “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future.” The African Union was admitted as a permanent G20 member during India’s presidency.

Q45. ⭐⭐ The QUAD grouping consists of:

(a) USA, UK, Australia, New Zealand (b) USA, India, Japan, Australia (c) USA, India, Japan, South Korea (d) USA, India, Australia, Singapore

Answer: (b) USA, India, Japan, Australia

Explanation: The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) consists of the United States, India, Japan, and Australia. It was informally revived in 2017 and elevated to a leaders’ summit format in 2021. The QUAD focuses on a free and open Indo-Pacific, supply chain resilience, clean energy, and vaccine diplomacy. It’s not a formal military alliance.

Q46. ⭐ Which country joined BRICS in 2024?

(a) Indonesia (b) Turkey (c) Saudi Arabia, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, and Iran (d) Argentina and Algeria

Answer: (c) Saudi Arabia, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, and Iran

Explanation: At the 2023 BRICS Summit in Johannesburg, South Africa, BRICS invited six new members: Saudi Arabia, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and Argentina. All except Argentina joined from January 1, 2024. Argentina under new president Javier Milei declined the invitation. Indonesia, Turkey, and Algeria applied but weren’t initially included.

Q47. ⭐⭐ Operation Sindoor (2025) was India’s military action against:

(a) Terror camps in Bangladesh (b) Terror infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (c) Naxal camps in Chhattisgarh (d) Drug cartels in Myanmar

Answer: (b) Terror infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir

Explanation: Operation Sindoor was launched on May 7, 2025, following the Pahalgam terror attack (April 22, 2025) in J&K’s Baisaran Valley that killed 26 tourists. India struck 9 terror sites across Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir using precision weapons, targeting infrastructure linked to groups like Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammad. It was India’s most significant cross-border military action since the 1971 war.

Q48. ⭐ World Environment Day is observed on:

(a) April 22 (b) June 5 (c) October 16 (d) March 21

Answer: (b) June 5

Explanation: World Environment Day is observed on June 5 every year. It was established by the UN General Assembly in 1972 following the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment. April 22 is Earth Day. October 16 is World Food Day. March 21 is International Day of Forests.

Q49. ⭐⭐ The Nobel Peace Prize 2023 was awarded to:

(a) Narges Mohammadi (b) Ales Bialiatski (c) Memorial (Russia) and Center for Civil Liberties (Ukraine) (d) Malala Yousafzai

Answer: (a) Narges Mohammadi

Explanation: Narges Mohammadi, Iranian human rights activist and champion of women’s rights in Iran, won the Nobel Peace Prize 2023. She has been imprisoned multiple times by Iranian authorities for her activism. She received the prize while in prison. The 2022 Peace Prize went to Ales Bialiatski, Memorial (Russia), and the Center for Civil Liberties (Ukraine).

Q50. ⭐⭐⭐ Consider the following about India’s demographic dividend:

1. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential from a large working-age population
2. India is expected to have its peak demographic dividend around 2040-2045
3. India’s fertility rate has already fallen below replacement level in some southern states
4. Demographic dividend automatically converts into economic growth

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) All four

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1: Correct — demographic dividend = large working-age population relative to dependents. Statement 2: Correct — India’s peak working-age share is projected around 2040-45. Statement 3: Correct — Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana have TFRs below 2.1 (replacement level). Statement 4: WRONG — demographic dividend is a potential, not automatic. It requires investment in education, healthcare, and job creation to convert into growth.

Practice Tips for GK in UPSC

Don’t memorize in isolation. UPSC questions link facts to concepts. “Which year was the Disaster Management Act passed?” requires knowing 2005 — but UPSC will ask “What institution was created by the DM Act 2005?” which requires understanding the Act.

Current affairs anchor static knowledge. Connect current events to static GK. Operation Sindoor (2025) connects to India-Pakistan relations, Article 51 of the Constitution (international peace), and India’s nuclear doctrine.

Read the newspaper with a GK lens. When you read about a new tiger reserve, connect it to Project Tiger, NTCA, and the WPA 1972.

Make GK flash cards. National symbols, Schedules of Constitution, Article numbers, river tributaries, pass names — these need memorization. Flash cards work.

Important Days & Dates 2026: Month-wise List

Frequently Asked Questions

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