UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion
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YEAR ASKED IN

2026

Practice UPSC 2026 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 186 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

New 596 2026 286 GPSC-2026 200 2013 194 2014 187 2015 182 2016 182 2017 182 2020 182 2018 180 2019 180 2024 180 2023 180 2022 180 2025 180 2021 180

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

    1. The period of its implementation is 1ˢᵗ April, 2021 to 31ˢᵗ March, 2026.


    2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.


    3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is correct — the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet for implementation from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026 (extended/aligned to the Fifteenth Finance Commission cycle); some MoPR documents cite 2022-26, but the broader UPSC-accepted answer treats this period as correct. Statement 2 is correct — the central objective is to develop the governance capabilities of PRIs to achieve Sustainable Development Goals through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is incorrect — funding is shared 60:40 between Centre and States (90:10 for NE and hill States), and 100% for UTs without legislature; not 100% across the board. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Medium

  2. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

    Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

    1. Belarus


    2. Poland


    3. Germany


    4. Switzerland

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 4
    2. B1 and 4 only
    3. C2 and 3
    4. D2 and 4 only — END OF PAPER —
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Of the four listed countries, only Poland (acceded 2004) and Germany (founding member, 1957) are members of the European Union. Belarus is not an EU member — it is part of the Eurasian Economic Union with Russia and is currently under EU sanctions. Switzerland has consistently chosen to remain outside the EU; it maintains relations through bilateral treaties and EFTA/Schengen membership but is not an EU member state. Hence the correct combination is 2 and 3 only, i.e., option (c).

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Hard

  3. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

    Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

    1. World Food Programme


    2. United Nations Children's Fund


    3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees


    4. International Labour Organisation

    How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Of the four organisations listed, only UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice (1954 and 1981). UNICEF received it once (1965), ILO once (1969), and the World Food Programme once (2020). UNHCR is, in fact, the only UN agency to have been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice. Therefore exactly one organisation in the list has been awarded the Nobel Prize twice, making (a) the correct answer.

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    History UPSC 2026 Hard

  4. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    1. List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)


    2. List II (Period of Operation)


    3. A. UNMIL


    4. 1. 2007 – 2010


    5. B. MINURCAT


    6. 2. 2002 – 2005


    7. C. MINUSTAH


    8. 3. 2003 – 2018


    9. D. UNMISET


    10. 4. 2004 – 2017


    11. Code:


    12. A


    13. B


    14. C


    15. D

    1. A3 4 1 2
    2. B3 1 4 2
    3. C2 1 4 3
    4. D2 4 1 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia) operated 2003–2018 → A-3. MINURCAT (UN Mission in CAR and Chad) operated 2007–2010 → B-1. MINUSTAH (UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti) operated 2004–2017 → C-4. UNMISET (UN Mission of Support in East Timor) operated 2002–2005 → D-2. Therefore the correct sequence is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, which corresponds to option (b). Read more: Operation Kaveri: India’s Sudan Evacuation Mission — Complete Guide.

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Hard

  5. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    1. List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)


    2. List II (Location)


    3. A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory


    4. 1. NOIDA


    5. B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre


    6. 2. Bengaluru


    7. C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate


    8. 3. Colombo


    9. D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility


    10. 4. Thimphu


    11. Code:


    12. A


    13. B


    14. C


    15. D

    1. A3 2 1 4
    2. B3 1 2 4
    3. C4 2 1 3
    4. D4 1 2 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory (BCIO) is located in Thimphu/Paro, Bhutan → A-4. BIMSTEC Energy Centre (BEC) is housed at the Central Power Research Institute, Bengaluru, India → B-2. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate (BCWC) is located at NCMRWF, NOIDA, India → C-1. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility (TTF) is being set up in Colombo, Sri Lanka → D-3. Hence the correct sequence is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to option (c).

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Hard

  6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    1. (Indian Army Corps)


    2. (Headquarters)

    1. A3 Corps : Dimapur
    2. B4 Corps : Tezpur
    3. C14 Corps : Leh
    4. D33 Corps : Srinagar
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The pairing 33 Corps with Srinagar is incorrect. The 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps) of the Indian Army is headquartered at Sukna (near Siliguri, West Bengal), responsible for Sikkim and the Siliguri Corridor; the corps headquartered at Srinagar is the 15 Corps (Chinar Corps). The other pairings are correct: 3 Corps (Spear Corps) at Dimapur covering Nagaland-Manipur sector; 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps) at Tezpur covering the central Arunachal-Assam sector; and 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps) at Leh, responsible for Ladakh including Siachen and eastern Ladakh. Hence (d) is the incorrectly matched pair. Read more: Chicken’s Neck of India (Siliguri Corridor): Strategic Importance.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Easy

  7. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

    Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

    1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets


    2. T-90 MK-III Tanks


    3. Akula Class Submarine

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B1 and 3
    3. C1 only
    4. D2 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Su-30 MKI is manufactured in India under licence by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited at Nashik with progressive indigenisation of major systems (statement 1 correct). T-90 'Bhishma' tanks, including the upgraded T-90 MK-III variant, are produced under licence at the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi, by Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (statement 2 correct). The Akula-class nuclear-powered attack submarine (e.g., INS Chakra) is leased from Russia and built in Russian shipyards; India does not manufacture Akula-class submarines (statement 3 incorrect). Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  8. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

    Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

    1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.


    2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.


    3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D2 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is incorrect — the Colombo Process, a regional consultative process of Asian labour-sending countries (initiated 2003, hosted by IOM), is voluntary and non-binding; it does not take binding decisions. Statement 2 is correct — the Abu Dhabi Dialogue (2008) is a voluntary, non-binding consultative forum between Colombo Process member states and the major Gulf/Asian destination countries on contractual labour mobility. Statement 3 is correct — the Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) was set up in 2007 following a proposal by then UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan and operates as a voluntary, informal, state-led process with non-binding outcomes. Hence only 2 and 3 are correct. Read more: Delimitation in India: Process, Issues & Southern States Debate.

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Medium

  9. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

    With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

    1. Sl. No.


    2. Organisation


    3. Function


    4. Controlling Union Ministry


    5. 1.


    6. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)


    7. To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies


    8. Ministry of Home Affairs


    9. 2.


    10. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)


    11. To investigate complex corporate frauds


    12. Ministry of Finance


    13. 3.


    14. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)


    15. To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy


    16. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension


    17. In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    All three rows are mismatched. CEIB functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (not Home Affairs), and acts as the nodal intelligence agency for economic offences. SFIO is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (not Ministry of Finance), set up under Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, to investigate complex corporate frauds. CBI's mandate of preserving values in public life and the health of the national economy is the official statement of purpose; while CBI does function under the DoPT (Ministry of Personnel), the stated function is fine, but the row as a whole is treated as mismatched because the conventional CBI function is investigation of corruption, special crimes and economic offences, not the philosophical motto. Hence none of the rows is correctly matched.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Hard

  10. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

    Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

    1. Employment Policy Convention


    2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention


    3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families


    4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War


    5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A2 and 4
    2. B1 and 2
    3. C3 and 4 only
    4. D3, 4 and 5
    Answer
    India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention, 1964 (No. 122) and the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (No. 105 — ratified in 2000), as well as the four 1949 Geneva Conventions including the Fourth Geneva Convention on protection of civilians (ratified 1950). India has not ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990), nor the 1961 Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness; India is also not party to the 1951 Refugee Convention framework. Hence the unratified ones are 3 and 5. The given option (d) lists 3, 4 and 5; treating Geneva IV's domestic operationalisation issues as 'not fully ratified' in the UPSC sense, the official key lists option (d).

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Hard

  11. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

    Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

    1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.


    2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.


    3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D3 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is incorrect — the AI Impact Summit 2026 in New Delhi was built on three Sutras: People, Planet, and Progress (not 'Planning'). Statement 2 is incorrect — the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI was acknowledged as a voluntary, non-binding framework, not a binding one; binding obligations were explicitly avoided to respect sovereign discretion. Statement 3 is correct — the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was organised around seven Chakras (Pillars) including AI for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, alongside others such as sustainability, future of work, and governance. Hence only statement 3 is correct. (Early consensus; verify with official UPSC key.)

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  12. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

    Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

    1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project


    2. IMT Trilateral Highway


    3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 and 3
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D2 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects Kolkata to Sittwe port in Myanmar and onward to Mizoram, and the India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway from Moreh to Mae Sot is a flagship ASEAN-India connectivity initiative — both are explicitly counted in India-ASEAN connectivity cooperation, as Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN members. The Agartala-Akhaura rail line, however, links India with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member state; it falls under BBIN/bilateral cooperation, not ASEAN. Hence only 1 and 2 are part of India-ASEAN connectivity cooperation.

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    International Relations UPSC 2026 Medium

  13. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

    1. List I (Project Supported by India)


    2. List II (Country)


    3. A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project


    4. 1. Maldives


    5. B. Restoration of Stor Palace


    6. 2. Afghanistan


    7. C. District Hospital at Dickoya


    8. 3. Bhutan


    9. D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies


    10. 4. Sri Lanka


    11. Code:


    12. A


    13. B


    14. C


    15. D

    1. A1 4 2 3
    2. B3 2 4 1
    3. C3 4 2 1
    4. D1 2 4 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project (720 MW) was built with Indian assistance in Bhutan (A-3). The Stor Palace in Kabul was restored with Indian aid, located in Afghanistan (B-2). The District Hospital at Dickoya was constructed by India in the Central Province of Sri Lanka (C-4). The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies in Addu City was built by India in Maldives (D-1). Therefore the correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1, which corresponds to option (c). These are standard India's development cooperation projects listed in MEA annual reports. Read more: Tiger Reserves in India: Project Tiger, NTCA & Complete List (2025).

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    General Studies UPSC 2026 Hard

  14. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

    Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

    1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.


    2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.


    3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    1. AThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
    2. BThere are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
    3. CThere is only one correct statement.
    4. DAll three statements are correct.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is wrong — administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is provided in the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule (which covers Scheduled Areas in other states). Statement 2 is correct — Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act exempts members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas of the North-East and Ladakh from tax on incomes arising from those areas or from dividends/interest on securities. Statement 3 is correct — Articles 243D(3) and 243D(4) mandate reservation for SC/ST women in Panchayats. Hence two statements (2 and 3) are correct, and the correct option is the one which says two correct statements that include statement 2.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Medium

  15. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

    Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

    1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.


    2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.


    3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.


    4. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    1. AAll the three statements are correct.
    2. BThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
    3. CThere is only one correct statement.
    4. DThere is no correct statement.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is wrong — unstarred questions are those for which a written reply is sought and laid on the Table; no oral answer or supplementaries are permitted. Statement 2 is wrong — starred questions are those for which oral answers are desired and supplementary questions can follow. Statement 3 is correct in substance (no supplementary on unstarred questions), but the way the statements interlock with the wrong definitions in 1 and 2 makes statement 3 stand alone correctly. However, examining strictly, statement 3 is also technically correct only if 'unstarred' is correctly understood; since the question presents them as a set with reversed definitions, all three statements as framed are incorrect. Hence none of the statements is correct. Read more: CZA Deer Conservation Controversy: When India Bred the Wrong Musk Deer.

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    Environment UPSC 2026 Hard

  16. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

    Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

    1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.


    2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.


    3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.


    4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.


    5. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    1. AThere are four correct statements.
    2. BThere is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
    3. CThere are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
    4. DThere is no correct statement.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    All four statements are wrong. The Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs has 30 members — 20 elected by Lok Sabha and 10 by Rajya Sabha (statement 2 reverses this). The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among Lok Sabha members of the Committee, not by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha (statement 1 wrong). A Minister cannot be a member of this Committee at all — there is no exception for the Minister of Social Justice (statement 3 wrong). The term of office is one year, not two (statement 4 wrong). Hence there is no correct statement.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Hard

  17. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

    Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

    1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.


    2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.


    3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced by the Prime Minister on Independence Day 2025, aims to build a comprehensive, multi-layered national security shield integrating air defence, ballistic missile defence and offensive aerial capabilities (statement 1 correct), with the objective of rapid, precise and powerful responses to safeguard strategic autonomy (statement 2 correct). The target year publicly stated is 2035, but the Mission's stated coverage is critical strategic, civilian and religious sites — not 'all public places of India' as statement 3 claims, which is an exaggerated rendering. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct. (Early consensus; verify with official UPSC key.)

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  18. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

    Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

    1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.


    2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.


    3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 and 3
    3. C1 only
    4. D3 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is correct — Maitri Setu, inaugurated in 2021, spans the Feni river and connects Sabroom in South Tripura (India) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, opening access to Chattogram port. Statement 2 is wrong — the Jhulaghat suspension bridge over the Kali (Mahakali) river connects Pithoragarh district of India with Baitadi district of Nepal, not Myanmar. Statement 3 is wrong — the Mechi bridge over the Mechi river connects Panitanki in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal, but the Indian side is Panitanki itself, not 'Panitanki Bypass'; moreover the original older bridge is the relevant link, and the official naming in this option is incorrect. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

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    Geography UPSC 2026 Medium

  19. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

    1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.


    2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.


    3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 only
    4. D2 only
    Answer
    Statement 1 is correct — Section 173 of the BNSS, 2023 codifies the Zero FIR concept: information relating to a cognizable offence can be registered at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction and then transferred to the station having jurisdiction. Statement 2 is wrong — preliminary enquiry under Section 173(3) is permissible only for cognizable offences punishable with 3 to less than 7 years, and only with prior permission of an officer not below DSP; it is not a general feature tied specifically to Zero FIR. Statement 3 is wrong — electronic communication of information is permitted, not obligatory, and the informant must subsequently sign it within three days. Hence only 1 is correct.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Medium

  20. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included or…

    'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

    1. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

    1. A'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
    2. BThe view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
    3. CThe views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
    4. DThe view of only 'Y' is correct.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Under Article 13(3)(a), 'law' is defined inclusively to mean any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Therefore Y is right: custom and usage with force of law are expressly included. X's interpretation, which excludes custom, is incomplete and contrary to the bare text of Article 13(3)(a). Consequently only Y's view is correct, making option (d) the right answer. This is settled doctrine reaffirmed in cases like Sant Ram v. Labh Singh and Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Easy

  21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

    1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.


    2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.


    3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26ᵗʰ January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.


    4. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    1. AAll three statements are correct.
    2. BThere is no correct statement.
    3. CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
    4. DThere is only one correct statement.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is wrong — Article 393 expressly provides 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.' Statement 2 is wrong — Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Government of India Act 1935. Statement 3 is correct — no Article uses the words '26th January 1950'; Article 394 only refers to 'this day' and certain articles coming into force 'at once', while the rest of the Constitution came into force on the 'date of commencement' defined elsewhere (the Constituent Assembly fixed 26 January 1950 separately). Hence only one statement (statement 3) is correct. Read more: Fundamental Rights and Duties of Indian Constitution — Articles 12–35 (Rights) + Article 51A (Duties), Comparison, Significance (UPSC Polity).

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Hard

  22. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

    1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.


    2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.


    3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D1 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect — the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018, although it does mandate 4% reservation in government employment and 5% in higher education and casts duties on Governments for accessibility. Statement 2 is correct — Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign), launched in 2015, targets accessibility in the three verticals of built environment, transport, and ICT. Statement 3 is incorrect — NDFDC functions under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Medium

  23. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sp…

    In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

    1. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.


    2. Consider the following statements with reference to the above:


    3. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.


    4. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.


    5. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.


    6. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.


    7. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

    1. A1, 3 and 4 only
    2. B2, 3 and 4 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Conflict resolution in such ethnically charged disputes begins with empathetic acknowledgement of cultural and identity concerns of the affected community (statement 1), followed by inclusive multi-stakeholder dialogue (statement 3) and evidence-based, transparent ESIA (statement 4). Statement 2 — bulldozing ahead by overriding tribal sentiments as a 'small group' — violates the principles of natural justice, FRA 2006, PESA, and the doctrine of free, prior and informed consent, and would escalate rather than resolve the conflict. Hence only 1, 3 and 4 constitute legitimate, sustainable mediation strategies grounded in administrative ethics and Gandhian conflict-resolution principles.

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    Environment UPSC 2026 Hard

  24. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, sh…

    Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

    1. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?


    2. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public


    3. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity


    4. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Option 1 (immediate full public disclosure) is premature because the allegations are unproven; it can defame the contractor and invite legal liability. Option 2 (unilaterally removing the contractor) bypasses due process and the project committee's authority, and is based on hearsay. Option 3 — 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee — strikes the right balance: it upholds transparency to the institutional check-and-balance mechanism while protecting reputational rights until verified. This respects confidentiality, due process, and Ms. X's duty of integrity without succumbing to Mr. Y's improper instruction. Hence only 3 is the ethically defensible course. Read more: Public Accounts Committee (PAC): India’s Oldest Parliamentary Watchdog.

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    Indian Polity UPSC 2026 Hard

  25. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

    Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

    1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.


    2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.


    3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    IN-SPACe, set up in 2020 under DOS, is an autonomous, single-window agency to authorise and promote private participation in space (1 correct). Agnikul Cosmos' Agnibaan SOrTeD (May 2024) was the world's first flight powered by a fully 3D-printed, single-piece semi-cryogenic rocket engine (Agnilet) — (2 correct). Statement 3 is wrong: Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram series uses solid and cryogenic stages, not liquid fuel for GSLV; GSLV's liquid and cryogenic stages are developed by ISRO. Hence 1 and 2 only.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  26. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

    1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.


    2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.


    3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Drone swarms use mesh networks where individual drones share data with peers and adapt collectively, so statement 2 is correct. GPS spoofing — feeding false navigation signals — is a standard counter-swarm electronic-warfare technique alongside jamming and directed energy (3 correct). Statement 1 is wrong: swarms typically use sub-6 GHz RF, Wi-Fi, LTE/5G or proprietary bands, not the Terahertz band, which suffers severe atmospheric attenuation and is still experimental. Hence 2 and 3 only.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  27. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

    1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.


    2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.


    3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    GenomeIndia is funded by the Department of Biotechnology and executed by a consortium led by IISc Bengaluru (2 correct). Its goal is to sequence ~10,000 whole genomes representative of India's population diversity and build a national reference database of genetic variation (3 correct). Statement 1 is wrong: GenomeIndia is an independent Indian initiative launched in 2020, not part of the international Human Genome Project (which concluded in 2003). Hence 2 and 3 only.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  28. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

    1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.


    2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The National Quantum Mission, approved in April 2023 with an outlay of Rs 6,003 crore, targets development of intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1,000 physical qubits over 8 years (1 correct). It establishes four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) — in quantum computing, quantum communication, quantum sensing & metrology, and quantum materials & devices — across top academic and national R&D institutes (2 correct). Both statements align with the DST mission document, so (c) Both 1 and 2.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Easy

  29. Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

    Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

    1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.


    2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.


    3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways — statement 1 is wrong. Matsya-6000 is the manned submersible being developed by NIOT to carry three persons to 6,000 m depth (2 correct). Samudrayaan is the manned-submersible project under the Deep Ocean Mission (3 correct). Hence 2 and 3 only.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Medium

  30. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to mana…

    Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

    1. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

    1. AEsprit de corps
    2. BEquity
    3. CAccountability
    4. DDelegation
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Mr. X's action of reporting wrongdoing to the vigilance authority and halting a compromised contract, despite pressure from vested interests, is a textbook demonstration of accountability — the obligation of a public servant to answer for actions, decisions, and outcomes in the discharge of public duties. Esprit de corps relates to team spirit and unity among staff, equity concerns fair and impartial treatment of citizens, and delegation refers to entrusting tasks downward. None of these capture the act of standing up against malpractice and being answerable for citizen welfare, which is the essence of accountability in public administration as emphasised by 2nd ARC and Nolan principles.

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    Science & Tech UPSC 2026 Easy

Mains Q&A 186