UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

YEAR ASKED IN

2014

Practice UPSC 2014 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 87 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2…

    The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4,
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is correct: At such high temperatures, tipping points like widespread forest dieback and permafrost thaw would release vast amounts of stored carbon, causing the land to emit more carbon than it absorbs.

    Statement 2 is correct: Scientific consensus indicates that even at 2°C of warming, over 99% of coral reefs are expected to be lost. A 3°C rise would ensure their catastrophic and widespread collapse.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: The word "All" is an extreme overstatement. While many wetlands would be severely damaged or lost, it is not scientifically plausible that every single one would disappear permanently.

    Statement 4 is incorrect: The term "anywhere" is an exaggeration. While global food production would be devastated, cultivation would not become impossible everywhere; it might shift to new, higher-latitude regions.

  2. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct

    With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct

    1. AIt serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on biological diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'
    2. BIt undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level
    3. CIt is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries
    4. DBoth a and b
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Option A is Correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism for several major international environmental conventions, including the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

    Option B is Incorrect: The GEF is a financial organization that provides grants and funding for environmental projects; it is not a scientific research body. Scientific research and assessments are typically conducted by organizations like the IPCC or IPBES.

    Option C is Incorrect: The GEF is an independent financial organization, not an agency under the OECD. It was established in 1991 and restructured after the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to serve as a mechanism for global environmental cooperation.

    Option D is Incorrect: Since only statement A is correct, this option is false.

  3. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which…

    Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

    1. A22 March or 21st March
    2. B15th May or 16th May
    3. C31st March or 30th March
    4. D21st April or 20th April
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    In a leap year, Chaitra has 31 days and Chaitra 1 coincides with March 21. In a normal year Chairta 1 coincides with March 22.

    The Saka era calendar, also known as the Shaka calendar or the Indian national calendar, is a solar calendar used alongside the Gregorian calendar in India. It is based on the Saka era, believed to have begun in 78 CE.

  4. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: 1. Sattriya is…

    With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama. 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam. 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Sattriya originated in Sattra, a monastery, as a part of neo-Vaishnavite movement started by Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th Century. He propagated the 'ek sharan Naama dharma' (chanting the name of one God devotedly).

    Statement 1 is correct: Sattriya is indeed a combination of music, dance, and drama. It incorporates storytelling through movement and expressions.

    Statement 2 is correct: Sattriya has a rich history and is a living tradition practiced for centuries by Vaishnavites of Assam.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: While devotional in nature, Sattriya dance is based on compositions by Sankardeva and other Assamese saints, not Tulsidas, Kabir, and Mirabai who belonged to different Bhakti traditions. Sattriya uses its own distinct Ragas and Talas.

  5. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used…

    There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is correct: Nanoparticles from industry can pollute air, water, and soil due to their small size and resistance to breakdown. This buildup can harm plants, and animals, and even contaminate drinking water.

    Statement 2 is correct: Nanoparticles can be inadvertently ingested by plants or animals, entering the food chain. As they move up the food chain, they can bioaccumulate in organisms, potentially causing harm at higher trophic levels.

    Statement 3 is correct: Some nanoparticles can trigger the production of free radicals in cells. Free radicals are highly reactive molecules that can damage cells and contribute to various health problems, including inflammation and cancer.

  6. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements…

    With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.

    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.

    Statement 2 is correct: Wetlands International is dedicated to maintaining and restoring wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge and use this practical experience to advocate for better policies.

  7. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

    If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

    1. Adecrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
    2. Bincrease the tax collection of the Government
    3. Cincrease the investment expenditure in the economy
    4. Dincrease the total savings in the economy
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Lower Interest rates encourage additional investment spending , which gives the economy a boost in times of slow economic growth.

    * Changes in interest rates affect the public's demand for goods and services and, thus, aggregate investment spending.

    * A decrease in interest rates lowers the cost of borrowing, which encourages businesses to increase investment spending. * Lower interest rates also give banks more incentive to lend to businesses and households, allowing them to spend more.

  8. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

    Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook'?

    1. AThe International Monetary Fund
    2. BThe United Nations Development Programme
    3. CThe World Economic Forum
    4. DThe World Bank
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a flagship report published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) twice a year, typically in April and October. It provides a comprehensive analysis of global economic developments, short-term and medium-term growth projections, and examines pressing policy issues. Other key reports published by the IMF include the Global Financial Stability Report and the Fiscal Monitor.

  9. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in…

    Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1, 3 and 4 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 4 only
    4. D1,2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Correct: The steel industry uses coal and coke as fuel and reducing agents; since these contain sulphur, their combustion and the sintering process release oxides of sulphur (SOx). Statement 2 is Correct: High-temperature operations in blast furnaces and heating processes cause atmospheric nitrogen to react with oxygen, leading to the formation of oxides of nitrogen (NOx). Statement 3 is Correct: Carbon monoxide (CO) is generated as a byproduct during the reduction of iron ore in the blast furnace and through the incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels. Statement 4 is Correct: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a major emission resulting from the chemical reduction of iron ore (coke reacting with ore) and the combustion of fossil fuels for energy production.

  10. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. ‘Photovoltaics’…

    With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in the electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1, 2 and 3
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is correct: Photovoltaic (PV) technology converts sunlight directly into electricity using semiconductors (like silicon) — this is a direct conversion of light to electrical energy. Solar Thermal technology uses mirrors or lenses to concentrate sunlight to produce heat, which then drives a turbine to generate electricity (an indirect process).

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Photovoltaic systems generate Direct Current (DC), which is usually converted into Alternating Current (AC) through an inverter for grid use. Solar Thermal systems generate heat energy, which is used to produce AC electricity through conventional turbines.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: India has a manufacturing base for solar photovoltaics (PV) — including solar cells, modules, and panels (e.g., companies like Adani Solar, Vikram Solar, and Tata Power Solar). The solar thermal manufacturing base in India is limited and largely focused on small-scale applications like water heating.

  11. Which one of the following pairs of islands are separated from each other by…

    Which one of the following pairs of islands are separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'?

    1. AAndaman and Nicobar
    2. BNicobar and Sumatra
    3. CMaldives and Lakshadweep
    4. DSumatra and Java
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman) from the Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar) at the 10°N latitude in the Bay of Bengal. It is approximately 150 km wide and serves as a significant maritime boundary between these two island groups.

    Context for other options: - Nicobar and Sumatra: These are separated by the Great Channel (also known as the Six Degree Channel). - Maldives and Lakshadweep: The Eight Degree Channel separates the Maldives from Minicoy Island (the southernmost part of Lakshadweep), while the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep archipelago. - Sumatra and Java: These Indonesian islands are separated by the Sunda Strait, which connects the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean.

  12. Consider the following pairs : | National Highway | Cities Connected | |——————|————————–| |…

    Consider the following pairs : | National Highway | Cities Connected | |------------------|--------------------------| | 1. NH 4 | Chennai and Hyderabad | | 2. NH 6 | Mumbai and Kolkata | | 3. NH 15 | Ahmedabad and Jodhpur | Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1, 2 and 3
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    National Highway 4 or NH 4: It is 230.7 km in length. This highway is known as the Andaman Trunk Road (The Great Andaman Trunk Road).

    Pair 1 is incorrect: A stretch of national highway from Mumbai to Pune to Hubli to Bangalore to Chennai was earlier called NH 4 before the renumbering of national highways in the year 2010. The former NH 4 is now renumbered as NH 48.

    Pair 2 is incorrect: National Highway 6 is a national highway in India running from Jorabat in Meghalaya to Selling in Mizoram. The highway passes through the Indian states of Meghalaya, Assam, and Mizoram.

    Pair 3 is incorrect: National Highway 15 (NH 15) starts from Baihata in Assam and terminates at Wakro in Arunachal Pradesh.

  13. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does…

    If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?

    1. AChanges in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference
    2. BThe country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within
    3. CThe survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity
    4. DIt is given the status of 'World Heritage Site'
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

  14. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? 1. Prevention of…

    What are the benefits of implementing the 'Integrated Watershed Development Programme'? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of the groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2, 3 and 4 only
    3. C1, 3 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: Prevention of soil runoff IWDP promotes practices that reduce soil erosion, protecting valuable topsoil and improving land fertility.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Linking perennial and seasonal rivers While water resource management is a part of IWDP, it doesn't focus on physically linking separate river systems. The National River Linking Project is a separate project to interlink rivers.

    Statement 3 is correct: Rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge IWDP encourages rainwater conservation techniques, allowing more water to infiltrate the ground and replenish aquifers.

    Statement 4 is correct: Regeneration of natural vegetation IWDP often involves planting trees and promoting sustainable land management practices, leading to increased vegetation cover.

  15. What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable…

    What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B1, 2 and 4 only
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is Correct: SSI uses single-bud chips raised in nurseries rather than traditional heavy setts, reducing the seed requirement from approximately 3 tonnes per acre to just 75 kg, which significantly lowers the seed cost.

    Statement 2 is Correct: The wide spacing and precise planting method in SSI allow for the highly effective use of drip irrigation, which helps in maintaining optimum moisture levels rather than the traditional flood irrigation.

    Statement 3 is Incorrect: While SSI encourages organic methods and the use of bio-fertilizers to improve soil health, it does not mandate the total exclusion of chemical or inorganic fertilizers; it focuses on their optimal and efficient application.

    Statement 4 is Correct: SSI involves wider spacing between rows (typically 4 to 5 feet) compared to conventional methods, which provides ample space and sunlight for successful intercropping with crops like pulses, vegetables, or oilseeds.

  16. |Region|Well known for the production of| |– |–| |1. Kinnaur (Himachal) | Areca nut|…

    |Region|Well known for the production of| |-- |--| |1. Kinnaur (Himachal) | Areca nut| |2. Mewat (Haryana)|Mango| |3. Coromandel (TN-Andhra) | Soya bean| Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1, 2 and 3
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Pair 1 is incorrect: Kinnaur (Himachal) is famous for apples, while Arecanut is grown mainly in the southern region.

    Pair 2 is incorrect: Mewat is a region in Haryana, while mango is grown in central and southern India.

    Pair 3 is incorrect: Coromandel (TN-Andhra) is known for rice cultivation, while soybean is predominantly in central India.

    Thus, none of the given pairs is correctly matched. Hence, the correct answer is 'D'.

  17. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia…

    What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? 1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A4-2-1-3
    2. B3-2-4-1
    3. C3-4-1-2
    4. D4-3-2-1
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The correct sequence of the cities from south to north is

    - Jakarta - Indonesia (Southernmost city) - Singapore - Island nation south of Malaysia - Bangkok - Thailand - Hanoi - Northernmost city in Vietnam (farthest north)

    So the correct sequence is 3-4-1-2.

  18. Turkey is located between

    Turkey is located between

    1. ABlack Sea and the Caspian Sea
    2. BBlack Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
    3. CGulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea
    4. DGulf of Aqaba and the Dead Sea
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Turkey is a transcontinental country located between the Black Sea to the north, the Aegean Sea to the west, Mediterranean Sea to the south

    ![Turkey](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Turkey_e60a664ba4.jpg)

  19. Consider these pairs – 1. Cardamom Hills — Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills –…

    Consider these pairs - 1. Cardamom Hills -- Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills -- Konkan Coast 3. Mahadeo Hills -- Central India 4. Mikir Hills -- North-East India Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 and 4 only
    4. D2 and 4 only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    ![Hills](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Hills_547bbc8f06.jpg) 1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast (Incorrect): - The Cardamom Hills are located in the southern Western Ghats of India, spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu. - The Coromandel Coast refers to the eastern coast of the Indian peninsula, bordering the Bay of Bengal.

    2. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast (Incorrect): - The Kaimur Hills are located in central India, bordering Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand. - The Konkan Coast lies on the western Indian peninsula along the Arabian Sea, far from the Kaimur Hills.

    3. Mahadeo Hills - Central India (Correct): - The Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura Range located in central India, primarily in Madhya Pradesh.

    4. Mikir Hills - North-East India (Correct): - The Mikir Hills, now referred to as the North Cachar Hills, are located in Assam, a state in northeastern India.

  20. Consider the following rivers: 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri Which of the above…

    Consider the following rivers: 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    ![Rivers in Arunachal Pradesh](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Arunachal_Pradesh_River_Map_7a28df0229.jpg)

    Barak: The Barak River is important in Manipur and Mizoram, but it does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

    Lohit: The Lohit River originates in the eastern end of the Himalayas in the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh and flows through the districts of Anjaw, Lohit, and Dibrugarh in Arunachal Pradesh.

    Subansiri: The Subansiri River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River and flows through Arunachal Pradesh.

    Therefore, only the Lohit and Subansiri rivers flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

    Option (B) 2 and 3 only

  21. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of –

    The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of -

    1. AEquatorial climate
    2. BMediterranean climate
    3. CMonsoon climate
    4. DAll of the above climates
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of a monsoon climate.

    Monsoons are seasonal winds that bring predictable patterns of rainfall. In summer, warm, moist air blows inland from the ocean, bringing heavy rainfall. In winter, the winds blow offshore, bringing dry conditions. This seasonal reversal of winds is what defines a monsoon climate.

  22. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?…

    In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 1. Terrace cultivation 2. Deforestation 3. Tropical climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    1. Terrace cultivation: This is a soil conservation technique used on sloping land. It involves creating leveled steps or terraces to reduce water runoff and soil erosion.

    2. Deforestation: When trees are cut down, the soil loses the protection provided by their roots. This exposes the soil to wind and rain, making it more susceptible to erosion. Deforestation is a major driver of soil erosion in India.

    3. Tropical climate: While heavy rainfall in tropical regions can contribute to soil erosion, it's not the sole factor. Deforestation and poor land management practices exacerbate the issue.

    Thus, the correct answer is '2 only'.

  23. Which of the following have coral reefs? 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf…

    Which of the following have coral reefs? 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf of Kutch 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1, 2 and 3 only
    2. B2 and 4 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Major reef formations in the Indian Seas occur in: - Gulf of Mannar, - Palk Bay, - Gulf of Kutch, - the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and - Lakshadweep.

    ![Coral Reefs](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Coral_Reefs_fac6cd12a0.jpg)

    Coral reefs are marine ecosystems and cannot exist in the Sundarbans, which is a mangrove forest in the Ganges Delta and a brackish water ecosystem.

  24. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement: 1. They live…

    With reference to 'Changpa' community of India, consider the following statement: 1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool. 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Changpa community is not found primarily in Uttarakhand. They are mainly concentrated in the Changtang region, a high-altitude plateau that stretches across parts of Ladakh (India) and the Tibet Autonomous Region (China).

    Statement 2 is correct: The Changpa are traditionally semi-nomadic pastoralists. They are well-known for rearing Changthangi goats, a special breed known for their fine wool, also called Pashmina. This wool is prized for its warmth, softness, and luxury.

    Statement 3 is correct: The Changpa community is indeed recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India. This classification provides them with certain social and legal protections under the Indian Constitution.

    Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  25. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’,…

    With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coal bed methane' and 'shale gas', consider the following statements: 1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India abundant coal bed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Coal bed methane is indeed pure methane gas extracted from coal seams. However, shale gas is not a mixture of propane and butane only. Shale gas is primarily composed of methane, similar to coal bed methane, and can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks, specifically shale formations. So, the first part of the statement is correct, but the second part is incorrect.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: It's not accurate to say that no shale gas sources have been found in India. While it's true that coal-bed methane sources are abundant in India, shale gas sources have also been identified, although their exploitation is at a nascent stage compared to coal-bed methane.

    Therefore, neither of the statements is entirely correct.

  26. Consider the following pairs |Region often in news|Country| |– |–| |1. Chechnya|Russian Federation| |2.…

    Consider the following pairs |Region often in news|Country| |-- |--| |1. Chechnya|Russian Federation| |2. Darfur|Mali| |3. Swat Valley | Iraq| Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Pair 1 is correct: Chechnya is a republic located in the northern part of the Caucasus Mountains, and it is a part of Russia.

    Pair 2 is incorrect: Darfur is a region located in western Sudan, not Mali.

    Pair 3 is incorrect: Swat Valley is located in the northwestern part of Pakistan, not Iraq.

    ![Map](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Chechnya_Darfur_Swat_1f8ddc9e49.jpg)

  27. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet…

    Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. The decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1, 2 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic action releases carbon dioxide trapped within the Earth's crust and mantle.

    Statement 2 is correct: Respiration releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct of cellular respiration in living organisms.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Plants and other photosynthetic organisms use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis to create organic molecules.

    ![Photosynthesis](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Photosynthesis_d286cde901.jpg)

    Statement 4 is correct: The decay of organic matter releases carbon dioxide as decomposers break down dead plants and animals. This process returns carbon stored in organic matter back to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

  28. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental…

    Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Continental drift: The movement of continents over millions of years has led to changes in the distribution of landmasses, altering habitats and creating opportunities for species to migrate, adapt, and diversify. It has influenced speciation events by creating barriers to gene flow and promoting allopatric speciation.

    Glacial cycles: Fluctuations in global climate associated with glacial-interglacial cycles have had profound effects on ecosystems and species distributions. Periods of glaciation have resulted in the expansion and contraction of ice sheets, leading to changes in sea levels, habitats, and the distribution of flora and fauna. These environmental changes have driven evolutionary processes such as adaptation, migration, and extinction.

    Therefore, both continental drift and glacial cycles have played significant roles in shaping the evolution of organisms.

  29. Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?…

    Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1 and 3 only.
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only.
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is correct: Sending a report to the President recommending imposition of President's Rule (Article 356) is a discretionary power of the Governor. The Governor can act independently if they believe the constitutional machinery in the state has failed.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The appointment of Ministers is done by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, not at their discretion (Article 164).

    Statement 3 is correct: The Governor has the discretionary power to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the President's consideration (Article 200).

    Statement 4 is incorrect: The rules for the conduct of business of the State Government are made by the Governor on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 166), not at their discretion.

  30. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 77 of the Constitution of India, the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 53 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Executive power of the Union. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President ( and not the Prime Minister) and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.

Mains Q&A 87

  1. In our country, the migration of rural people to towns and cities is increasing drastically. This is causing serious problems both in the rural as well as in the urban areas. In fact, things are becoming really unmanageable. Can you analyze this problem in detail and indicate not only the socio-economic but also the emotional and attitudinal factors responsible for this problem? Also, distinctly bring out why— (a) educated rural youth are trying to shift to urban areas; (b) landless poor people are migrating to urban slums; (c) even some farmers are selling off their land and trying to settle in urban areas taking up petty jobs. What feasible steps can you suggest which will be effective in controlling this serious problem of our country?

  2. Suppose you are the CEO of a company that manufactures specialized electronic equipment used by a government department. You have submitted your bid for the supply of this equipment to the department. Both the quality and cost of your offer are better than those of the competitors. Yet the concerned officer is demanding a hefty bribe for approving the tender. Getting the order is important both for you and for your company. Not getting the order would mean closing a production line. It may also affect your own career. However, as a value-conscious person, you do not want to give bribe. Valid arguments can be advanced both for giving the bribe and getting the order, and for refusing to pay the bribe and risking the loss of the order. What those arguments could be? Could there be any better way to get out of this dilemma? If so, outline the main elements of this third way, pointing out its merits.

  3. Rameshwar successfully cleared the prestigious civil services examination and was excited about the opportunity that he would get through the civil services to serve the country. However, soon after joining the services, he realized that things are not as rosy as he had imagined. He found a number of malpractices prevailing in the department assigned to him. For example, funds under various schemes and grants were being misappropriated. The official facilities were frequently being used for personal needs by the officers and staff. After some time, he noticed that the process of recruiting the staff was also not up to the mark. Prospective candidates were required to write an examination in which a lot of cheating was going on. Some candidates were provided external help in the examination. Rameshwar brought these incidents to the notice of his seniors. However, he was advised to keep his eyes, ears and mouth shut and ignore all these things which were taking place with the connivance of the higher-ups. Rameshwar felt highly disillusioned and uncomfortable. He comes to you seeking your advice. Indicate various options that you think are available in this situation. How would you help him to evaluate these options and choose the most appropriate path to be adopted?

  4. You are a no-nonsense, honest officer. You have been transferred to a remote district to head a department that is notorious for its inefficiency and callousness. You find that the main cause of the poor state of affairs is the indiscipline of a section of employees. They do not work themselves and also disrupt the working of others. You first warned the troublemakers to mend their ways or else face disciplinary action. When the warning had little effect, you issued a show cause notice to the ringleaders. As a retaliatory measure, these troublemakers instigated a woman employee amongst them to file a complaint of sexual harassment against you with the Women’s Commission. The Commission promptly seeks your explanation. The matter is also publicized in the media to embarrass you further. Some of the options to handle this situation could be as follows: (i) Give your explanation to the Commission and go soft on the disciplinary action. (ii) Ignore the Commission and proceed firmly with the disciplinary action. (iii) Brief your higher-ups, seek directions from them and act accordingly. Suggest any other possible option(s). Evaluate all of them and suggest the best course of action, giving your reasons for it.

  5. Now-a-days, there is an increasing thrust on economic development all around the globe. At the same time, there is also an increasing concern about environmental degradation caused by development. Many a time, we face a direct conflict between developmental activity and environmental quality. It is neither feasible to stop or curtail the developmental process, nor it is advisable to keep degrading the environment, as it threatens our very survival. Discuss some feasible strategies which could be adopted to eliminate this conflict and which could lead to sustainable development.

  6. (a) The current society is plagued with widespread trust-deficit. What are the consequences of this situation for personal well-being and for societal well-being? What can you do at the personal level to make yourself trustworthy? (b) It is often said that poverty leads to corruption. However, there is no dearth of instances where affluent and powerful people indulge in corruption in a big way. What are the basic causes of corruption among people? Support your answer with examples.

  7. (a) Which eminent personality has inspired you the most in the context of ethical conduct in life? Give the gist of his/her teachings. Giving specific examples, describe how you have been able to apply these teachings for your own ethical development. (b) There is a heavy ethical responsibility on the public servants because they occupy positions of power, handle huge amounts of public funds, and their decisions have wide-ranging impact on society and environment. What steps have you taken to improve your ethical competence to handle such responsibility?