2022

The correctly matched pairs are: * Pair 2: Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh. Located in the Sirmaur district, it is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations. * Pair 3: Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura. It is a lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging into the River Gomti.

The incorrectly matched pairs are: * Pair 1: Hokera Wetland. It is located in Jammu & Kashmir (near Srinagar), not Punjab. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin. * Pair 4: Sasthamkotta Lake. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is located in the Kollam district.

Since only two pairs (2 and 3) are correctly matched, the correct option is B.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in northwestern Uganda, not Kenya.

Statement 2 is Correct: People fleeing the civil war in South Sudan have been hosted in the Bidibidi settlement.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Dadaab refugee complex is located in Kenya and houses refugees, including those who fled the civil war in Somalia.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is correct. The WHO recommends that the 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean should not exceed 5 ug/m³. These are the current most stringent guidelines set by WHO to protect public health.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Ozone pollution typically peaks during sunny and stagnant weather conditions, not during inclement weather like rain or storms.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While PM10 (≤ PM10) particles can enter the deep lungs and cause respiratory issues, it's the much finer PM2.5 (≤ PM2.5) particles and ultrafine particles that effectively penetrate the lung barrier (alveoli) to enter the bloodstream, affecting the heart, brain, and other organs. PM10 typically deposits in larger airways, whereas PM2.5's tiny size allows it to cross into the circulatory system, making it more dangerous.

Statement 4 is correct. Excessive ozone exposure can trigger asthma attacks and worsen respiratory problems. Ozone irritates the respiratory tract, making it harder to breathe.

Statement 1 is incorrect. High clouds are often thin and do not reflect very much. They let lots of the Sun's warmth in. They primarily transmit incoming solar radiation. At the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Low clouds are often quite thick and reflect lots of sunlight back to space. Low clouds are excellent reflectors. But, they don't stop the longwave energy from escaping to space. Therefore, low clouds help to cool the Earth.


Statement 1 is correct: Although less common than coffee, tea is grown in the high-altitude regions of Andhra Pradesh (such as the Chintapalli and Araku areas).

Statement 2 is correct: Kerala is a major tea producer, especially in the Munnar, Wayanad, and Idukki districts.

Statement 3 is correct: Himachal Pradesh is famous for its Kangra Tea, which holds a GI tag and is known for its unique flavor.

Statement 4 is correct: Tripura is a significant tea-producing state in the Northeast, ranking among the top 5-6 producers in the country.

Note: This is a UPSC Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question. Per the Official Answer Key, Andhra Pradesh is included as a tea-producing state.


The longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere, also known as the summer solstice, typically occurs in the second half of the month of June.

This is when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5-degree north latitude.

The exact date can vary slightly from year to year, but it is usually on June 20th or 21st.


Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Namcha Barwa is located in the Arunachal Himalayas (Eastern Himalayas) in the Great Bend of the Brahmaputra River. The Garhwal Himalayas are located further west in Uttarakhand (e.g., Kamet, Trisul).

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Nanda Devi is the highest peak in the Kumaon Himalayas (Uttarakhand). It is the second-highest mountain in India and the highest located entirely within the country.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo Hills in Meghalaya. It is part of the Shillong Plateau/Meghalaya Plateau, not the Sikkim Himalayas.


Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge which is famously adjudged as the "Grand Canyon of India".

The canyon is a gorge carved out over millions of years by the Pennar River that streams from the Erramala hills.

It's known for its red-hued, layered, and jagged rock formations.

Lake Faguibine in Mali is a prime example of increasing aridity . Here's how it changed over the years, as seen through false-color Landsat satellite images - Initially, it was one of the largest lakes in West Africa, fed by the Niger River during floods. - In 1974, it spanned approximately 590 square kilometers (230 square miles). - A decline in precipitation from the late 1980s led to its gradual drying. - By the late 1990s, traditional livelihoods like fishing , agriculture , and livestock herding became impractical. - Despite the resumption of normal rainfall after 2000, the lake has remained nearly dry.

Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa and remains filled with water. Lake Oguta is located in Nigeria and is still a freshwater lake. Lake Volta is one of the largest artificial lake by surface area in the world and remains filled with water from the Volta River.


Tight monetary policy is an action taken by a central bank, such as the Federal Reserve, to curb overheated economic growth. Central banks employ tight monetary policy when an economy is experiencing rapid acceleration or when inflation, which pertains to overall prices, is escalating too swiftly.

Statement 1 is correct. A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve means higher interest rates in the US. This attracts global investors to shift their capital towards US assets for better returns. As a result, there can be capital flight from emerging markets like India to the US.

Statement 2 is correct. When capital flows out, the domestic currency tends to depreciate, and global interest rates rise. Firms that have borrowed in foreign currencies through External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) will now face higher repayment costs in rupee terms. Thus, their cost of servicing these loans increases, raising their overall financial burden.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Since these loans are denominated in foreign currency (like USD), a weaker rupee means firms have to pay more in rupees to repay the same amount of foreign debt. Therefore, devaluation heightens, not reduces, currency risk.

NOTE: The given question was dropped by UPSC from the Official Answer Key.

Statement 1 is correct: A portion of household financial savings in India does indeed go towards government borrowings. The government raises funds through various debt instruments like bonds and treasury bills. When households save money, they might invest it in these government debt instruments through banks or other financial institutions. This provides a source of funding for the government while offering a return to the investors (savers).

Statement 2 is correct: Dated securities are a major component of India's internal debt. These are essentially government bonds issued at market-determined interest rates through auctions. Investors, including households, banks, and financial institutions, can participate in these auctions and purchase dated securities.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Acquiring new technology - This is a capital expenditure. When a company acquires new technology (like software, machinery, or equipment), it's considered an investment that will benefit the organization for several years. The cost is added to the company's asset base and depreciated over its useful life.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Debt vs. Equity Financing - The way a company finances its expenditures (debt or equity) doesn't determine whether it's a capital or revenue expenditure. The nature of the expense itself matters more.

|Aspect|Capital Expenditure| Revenue Expenditure | |--|--|--| |Definition |Expenditure incurred for acquiring or improving fixed assets, which provide long-term benefits.|Expenditure that is incurred for routine operations and maintenance, providing short-term benefits.| | Purpose|To acquire, enhance, or extend the life of assets such as buildings, machinery, or equipment.| To meet day-to-day operational needs, like salaries, utilities, and maintenance.| |Impact on Assets | Increases the value of assets or creates new assets. |Does not increase the value of assets.| |Accounting Treatment |Recorded as an asset on the balance sheet and depreciated over time. |Recorded as an expense in the profit and loss statement for the current period.| |Time Horizon |Long-term benefit, typically spread over several years. |Short-term benefit, usually within the current year.| |Examples | Purchase of machinery, construction of buildings, land acquisition. |Salaries, wages, rent, repairs, and maintenance costs.|

Indirect Transfers: This refers to a situation where a foreign company transfers ownership of assets located in India, but not directly. Instead, they might transfer shares of a subsidiary company that holds the Indian assets.

Taxation on Underlying Assets: The Indian government aims to tax the transfer of assets with substantial value in India, even if the transaction happens offshore. Indirect transfer provisions ensure that the foreign company pays capital gains tax on the underlying Indian assets.

The real sector of the economy includes:

Farmers harvesting their crops: This is a primary sector activity where raw materials are produced. Agriculture forms a crucial part of the real sector.

Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics: This is a secondary sector activity where raw materials are processed into finished goods. Manufacturing industries are considered part of the real sector.

The other two options are part of the financial sector:

Commercial bank lending money (Financial sector): Banks and other financial institutions provide financial services like lending, borrowing, and investing. These activities facilitate transactions in the real sector but don't directly produce goods or services themselves.

Issuing rupee-denominated bonds overseas (Financial sector): This is a financial instrument where a company raises funds by issuing bonds. While it can indirectly support real sector activities by providing capital, it's not directly involved in production.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to India's Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy, 100% FDI is permitted in the 'marketplace model' of e-commerce, but FDI is strictly prohibited in the 'inventory-based model'. This means foreign-owned e-commerce firms can only provide an IT platform to act as a facilitator between buyers and sellers; they cannot exercise ownership or control over the inventory and are not allowed to sell their own goods on the platform.

Statement 2 is Correct: The government has implemented regulations to prevent foreign e-commerce entities from exercising indirect control over inventory. Under Press Note 2 (2018), a vendor is deemed to be controlled by the marketplace entity if more than 25% of its purchases are from the marketplace entity or its group companies. This effectively limits the degree to which these platforms can own or control big sellers, ensuring they remain neutral marketplaces.

Statement 1 is correct. Inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) typically offer a fixed real rate of return above inflation. Therefore, the coupon rates on IIBs are adjusted based on changes in inflation to maintain the real rate of return.

Statement 2 is correct. Inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) provide investors with protection against inflation because their principal and interest payments are adjusted based on changes in the inflation rate. This helps investors preserve their purchasing power.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Tax exemption Currently, the interest income on IIBs is taxable in India. Capital gains tax treatment on IIBs might depend on the specific holding period and type of investor.

Statement 1 is correct. The G20 Common Framework is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It was created in November 2020 to help Low Income Countries (LICs) facing unsustainable debt burdens.

Statement 2 is correct. The G20 Common Framework specifically targets Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. It provides a mechanism for these countries to restructure their debts in a coordinated manner with participation from various creditors, including official bilateral creditors, private creditors, and multilateral institutions.

Hence, both statements about the G20 Common Framework are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Typically, the RBI uses open market operations to sell government securities to drain money from the system and control inflation. Buying government securities would inject money into the system, potentially fueling inflation further.

Statement 2 is correct. Selling dollars in the market - If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, the RBI might intervene in the foreign exchange market by selling dollars from its reserves. This increased supply of dollars in the market can help stabilize the exchange rate and slow down the depreciation of the rupee.

Statement 3 is correct. Lower interest rates in the US/EU make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment, leading to a large inflow of dollars. This causes the rupee to strengthen (appreciate). To prevent the rupee from appreciating too rapidly and hurting exporters, the RBI buys the excess dollars from the market.

Statement 1 is incorrect. India's Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan is the largest solar power park in the world.

Statement 2 is correct. Kerala's Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project in Madhya Pradesh is currently the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

* Statement 1 is correct. The nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is a measure of the value of a country's currency against a basket of other currencies weighted by their importance in trade. If NEER increases, it means that the value of the currency has increased relative to the currencies in the basket, indicating appreciation.

* Statement 2 is incorrect. The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) takes into account both nominal exchange rates and relative price levels (inflation) between countries. An increase in REER means that the country's currency is overvalued relative to its trading partners, which can reduce trade competitiveness.

* Statement 3 is correct. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, the real value of the domestic currency decreases faster than the nominal value, causing a divergence between NEER and REER.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

The Coal Controller's Organisation (CCO) is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Coal, having its headquarters at Kolkata and field offices at Dhanbad, Ranchi, Bilaspur, Nagpur, Sambalpur, Kothagudem and Asansol. It collects and maintains coal production data of all private and public sector coal mines in the country. The information is collected every month.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority concerning coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out the Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

Statement 2 is correct. It is entrusted with the task of monitoring captive mines. Work such as permission for the opening and reopening of coal mines has been entrusted to the CCO.

Statement 3 is correct. Under the Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- the Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government's Notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing land and to furnish his reports to the Central Govt.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO).

Both Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are lending facilities offered by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to member countries facing urgent balance of payments needs.

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): This is available to all IMF member countries.

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): This is a concessional lending facility specifically for low-income countries (LICs) that are members of the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT).

The responsibility for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation in India lies primarily with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

The RBI formulates and implements monetary policy to maintain price stability and ensure adequate flow of credit to productive sectors of the economy.

As the central bank of the country, the RBI uses various tools such as repo rate, reverse repo rate, cash reserve ratio (CRR), and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) to influence liquidity and interest rates in the economy, thereby affecting inflationary pressures.

A convertible bond is a type of debt security that provides an investor with a right or an obligation to exchange the bond for a predetermined number of shares in the issuing company at certain times of a bond's lifetime. It is a hybrid security that possesses features of both debt and equity.

* Statement 1 is correct: Convertible bonds tend to offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into a common stock. Investors will generally accept a lower coupon rate on a convertible bond, compared with the coupon rate on an otherwise identical regular bond, because of its conversion feature. This enables the issuer to save on interest expenses, which can be substantial in the case of a large bond issue.

* Statement 2 is correct: The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices as equity prices can differ widely from the given interest and the difference in that can be used as a hedge for inflation.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is not the Chairman of the BBB.

Statement 2 is correct: One of the primary mandates of the BBB was to recommend candidates for the selection of heads (Whole-time Directors and Non-Executive Chairpersons) for Public Sector Banks (PSBs), state-owned financial institutions, and public sector insurers.

Statement 3 is correct: The BBB was also tasked with assisting Public Sector Banks in developing business strategies, capital raising plans, and improving their corporate governance and organizational structure.

Note: In 2022, the Government of India replaced the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) with the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), which now carries out these functions.

Statement 1 is Correct: NFTs enable the digital representation of physical assets through a process called tokenization. This allows real-world items such as real estate, physical artwork, or luxury goods to be represented by a digital token on a blockchain, facilitating easier transfer of ownership and reducing fraud.

Statement 2 is Correct: NFTs are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain, which is a distributed ledger technology. Unlike cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, which are fungible, each NFT has a unique identification code and metadata that distinguishes it from any other token.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: NFTs are "non-fungible," meaning they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. Fungible assets, like fiat currency or Bitcoin, are identical to each other and can be used for commercial transactions. Because every NFT is unique and has a different value, they cannot function as a standard medium of exchange.

In India, the primary agency responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers is the Labour Bureau

The Labour Bureau is an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It plays a crucial role in collecting, compiling, and disseminating labor statistics across various aspects, including industrial relations.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

The governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes' advisory council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, and regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.

Option B is incorrect. According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. The tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a governing body.

Option C is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not convert the area into a Union Territory.

Option D is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India does not get declared as a Special Category State.

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. On the other hand date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is seconded by the prime minister.

India is a member of all the Organizations mentioned. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation: SCO has 10 full members: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan (founding members), India, Pakistan (joined 2017), Iran (joined 2023), and Belarus (joined 2024).

Missile Technology Control Regime: India became a full member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) on June 27, 2016, becoming the 35th partner country and strengthening international efforts to prevent the spread of missile technology.

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank: India joined the AIIB as a founding member in 2015, signing the Articles of Agreement on June 29, 2015, in Beijing, becoming one of the 50 initial signatories to establish the multilateral development bank. India is the second-largest shareholder in the AIIB after China.