2022

Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

Statement 2 is correct: As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company when it is discharging a "public duty", so the statement is incomplete. Public Duty is Key: Mandamus aims to compel performance of a public duty, not just private functions.

Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Note (on Statement 2): In UPSC Prelims, statements must be judged as written, without adding extra conditions. A company does not become subject to the writ of Mandamus only because it is a Government company. Government ownership by itself is not enough. Since Statement 2 is framed in this limited and absolute sense, and no additional condition like "public duty" is mentioned, the statement is treated as correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 88, Every minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. The Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 76, the Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine Conduct of Government Business. There is no mention in the Indian Constitution of the need for him to submit his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Anti-Defection Law, a nominated legislator can join a political party within six months of being appointed to the House, not after such time.

Statement 2 is correct. The Anti-Defection Law does not specify any time limit for the presiding officer to decide on a defection case.

So, only the second statement is correct.

The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary movement organized by Indian immigrants in the United States and Canada to end British rule in India.

Rash Behari Bose, one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian National Movement, was actively associated with the Ghadar Party. He was one of the masterminds behind the Delhi conspiracy case and participated in the Ghadar movement.

However, Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee were not prominently associated with the Ghadar Party. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was an Indian revolutionary and journalist, and one of the founding members of the Jugantar Bengali weekly, a revolutionary outfit in Bengal. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was also a prominent freedom fighter but his association with the Ghadar Party is not well documented.

Therefore, only Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party among the options provided.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four fixed ranks. There are broadly two categories based on parliamentary convention - Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State (with or without independent charge). The number of ranks can vary based on the specific structure chosen by the government.

Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment to the Constitution limits the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the President.

Statement 2 is correct. The 24th Amendment of the Indian Constitution amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the Constitution and the President is obliged to give his/her assent.

Statement 3 is also correct. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority in both houses and there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement.

So, the second and third statements are correct.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Under the Advocates Act, 1961, only individual practitioners can be enrolled as advocates; legal firms are not recognized as advocates. Furthermore, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are not categorically excluded from recognition; if they are enrolled with a State Bar Council, they are recognized as advocates.

Statement 2 is Correct: Section 7 of the Advocates Act, 1961, empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to promote legal education and lay down standards for such education in consultation with Universities and State Bar Councils. The BCI also has the power to recognize Universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrollment as an advocate and to inspect law colleges for this purpose.

Statement 1 is correct: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted based on the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, which examined the law relating to contempt of courts.

Statement 2 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, to punish for contempt of themselves.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt; these are defined under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

Statement 4 is correct: Parliament has the power to make laws on contempt of court, as evidenced by the enactment of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

An open-source digital platform is essentially a software platform where the underlying code is freely available for anyone to see, modify, and distribute. This openness fosters collaboration, transparency, and innovation in software development.

All of the above (1. Aarogya Setu, 2. CoWIN, 3. Digi Locker, 4. DIKSHA) are built on top of open-source digital platforms.

- Aarogya Setu initially wasn't open-source, but the Indian government later made its source code available. - CoWIN leverages open-source software for its development. - DigiLocker utilizes an open-source platform called Digital Locker System. - DIKSHA is built on the open-source platform Sunbird.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi. ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, and experts to work in the sanitation space through a partnership model. It is not funded by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India's premier urban think tank, shaping the urban narrative since its establishment in 1976. It is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act, not an apex body of the Ministry.