2018

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 361 of the Indian Constitution, a Governor enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings while in office. No court can initiate proceedings against a Governor during their tenure for acts done in the exercise of their official duties. This provision ensures that the Governor can perform their constitutional responsibilities without fear of legal harassment. However, civil proceedings can be initiated with a two-month prior notice..

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 158, the salary and allowances of a Governor are determined by law and cannot be reduced during their tenure. This provision guarantees the Governor's financial independence, preventing any undue influence on their functioning.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) Both 1 and 2.

The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of governance that ensures all individuals, institutions, and the State itself are subject to and accountable under laws that are publicly known, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Let's analyze each option in this context:

Limitation of powers: The Rule of Law restricts arbitrary use of power by ensuring that no person or authority, including the government, is above the law. This maintains a system of checks and balances.

Equality before law: A core principle of the Rule of Law is "equality before the law" (Article 14 of the Indian Constitution), ensuring that all individuals, irrespective of rank or status, are treated equally.

People's responsibility to the Government: The Rule of Law primarily focuses on the government's accountability to the people, ensuring that it functions within the legal framework. It does not impose an obligation on citizens to be accountable to the government in the same way.

Liberty and civil rights: The Rule of Law safeguards fundamental rights, protecting individual freedoms, justice, and civil liberties from arbitrary actions of the state.

Hence, the correct answer is option (C) 1, 2, and 4 only.

The most appropriate statement is: If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Laws provide the foundation for liberty. Without laws, there would be no structured protection of individual rights, leading to a state of anarchy where the strong dominate the weak.

Liberty is meaningful only when protected by law. Laws define acceptable behavior, prevent exploitation, and ensure that one person's freedom does not infringe upon another's.

Statement 1 is correct: India is the world's largest importer of edible oils. For the last several years, the domestic production of edible oils has been significantly lower than the quantity imported. Domestic production typically accounts for only about 35-40% of the total consumption, while imports fulfill the remaining 60-65% of the demand.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India does impose customs duties on imported edible oils. These duties (such as Basic Customs Duty and Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess) are adjusted periodically to balance the interests of domestic consumers and local oilseed farmers. The claim that the government does not impose 'any' customs duty on 'all' imported edible oils is factually incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India does not feature among the top three global manufacturers of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic (PV) units or solar cells. The top three manufacturers of silicon wafers for PV applications are China, Taiwan, and South Korea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a government-owned company that facilitates the implementation of solar energy projects in the country, but it does not determine the solar power tariffs. The solar power tariffs in India are determined through a competitive bidding process conducted by various agencies.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Option A is correct. A Bill shall be deemed a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. This statement is correct as per Article 110(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which defines the scope of a Money Bill.

Option B is correct. A Money Bill includes provisions regarding the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(c) of the Constitution, a Money Bill may contain provisions related to the custody, withdrawal, and audit of funds from these financial accounts.

Option C is incorrect. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is not correct. The Contingency Fund of India is under the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditures, and its withdrawal is not governed by a Money Bill. Instead, Article 267(1) of the Constitution provides for its use, and the withdrawal of money from this fund is later regularized through an Appropriation Bill.

Option D is correct. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This statement is correct. As per Article 110(1)(d), provisions regarding government borrowing, the issuance of guarantees, and financial obligations of the Government of India fall within the scope of a Money Bill.

Thus, statements (a), (b), and (d) are correct, while statement (c) is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution.

Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution's core principles.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was not the Swatantra Party but the Communist Party of India.

Statement 2 is correct. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was indeed recognized for the first time in 1969.

Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The requirement is not 75 members but 10% of the total strength of the house, which is 55 members. So, only statement 2 is correct.

Right to Privacy and Article 21: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the landmark 2017 judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21. This ruling reinforced privacy as a fundamental right, ensuring protection against unwarranted state and private intrusions.

Part III of the Constitution covers Fundamental Rights, which include: - Article 19: Right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of movement, and other essential liberties. - Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty, which now includes privacy after the Puttaswamy judgment.

Article 14: Ensures equality before the law, but does not explicitly deal with privacy.

Article 17: Abolishes untouchability. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-enforceable guidelines, not fundamental rights.

Article 24: Prohibits child labor but has no relation to privacy.

Thus, the right to privacy is most closely linked to Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

Option A is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed, the State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be kept in suspended animation or dissolved later through a separate proclamation.

Option B is correct: Under President's Rule, the legislative powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament, which can make laws for the state during this period. This is in line with Article 356, which allows the President to assume state functions when the constitutional machinery breaks down.

Option C is incorrect: Article 19, which guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, movement, and profession, is not automatically suspended under President's Rule. Fundamental rights are only suspended during a national emergency under Article 352, not under Article 356.

Option D is incorrect: The President does not directly make laws for the state under Article 356. Instead, Parliament exercises legislative powers on behalf of the state during President's Rule.