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YEAR ASKED IN

2025

Practice UPSC 2025 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 80 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the…

    Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and II
    3. CI and III
    4. DIII only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) and NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) are two major electronic payment systems in India, differing mainly in settlement speed and mechanism.

    Statement I: Correct RTGS processes transactions instantly in real time, while NEFT settles in hourly batches, causing a time lag.

    Statement II: Incorrect Inward transactions (receiving money) are not charged in either RTGS or NEFT as per RBI guidelines.

    Statement III: Incorrect Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7x365, including on holidays.

  2. With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks…

    With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that invest in assets beyond traditional options like stocks and bonds. In India, SEBI classifies AIFs into three categories, including hedge funds and venture capital funds.

    Statement I: Incorrect * Bonds are traditional debt instruments and not classified as AIFs.

    Statement II: Correct * Hedge Funds fall under Category III AIFs as per SEBI regulations.

    Statement III: Incorrect * Stocks are conventional equity investments, not treated as AIFs.

    Statement IV: Correct * Venture Capital is a form of Category I AIF in India.

  3. The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

    The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

    1. Aa water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
    2. Ba large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
    3. Ca larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
    4. Da large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device consisting of a large wheel with earthen pots fixed around its rim. As the wheel rotated—usually powered by animals or humans—the pots dipped into a water source and lifted water for irrigation. This mechanism is distinct from leather bags or simple buckets pulled by hand and represents early mechanical water-lifting technology.

    ![Araghatta](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//araghatta_0957471c3a.jpg)

  4. With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements…

    With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BIII only
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes CO₂ directly from the air for storage or use in various industries.

    Statement I is correct: * DAC captures CO₂ for carbon sequestration, reducing greenhouse gases.

    Statement II is correct: * Captured CO₂ can be used to make plastics and in food processing.

    Statement III is correct: * DAC provides carbon to make synthetic low-carbon aviation fuels by combining with hydrogen.

    So, the correct answer is: C

  5. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development…

    Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a key arm of the World Bank Group, originally created for post-war reconstruction and now focused on development in middle-income nations.

    Statement I: Correct The IBRD provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.

    Statement II: Incorrect The IBRD does not work single-handedly; it collaborates with other arms of the World Bank Group like IDA, IFC, etc.

    Statement III: Correct It was established in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II.

  6. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC),…

    India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

    1. AIndia to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
    2. BIndia to Central Asia via China
    3. CIndia to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
    4. DIndia to Europe through Azerbaijan
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal transport network aimed at boosting trade between India, Central Asia, Russia, and Europe, using a combination of sea, rail, and road routes via Iran.

    ![INSTC](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//international_northsouth_transport_corridor_aac6093981.png)

    The corridor connects Mumbai → Bandar Abbas (Iran) → Azerbaijan → Russia → Europe, with access to Central Asia.

  7. Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of…

    Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement I is Correct: Axiom-4 is a private astronaut mission to the ISS specifically designed to carry out science and micro-gravity research payloads.

    Statement II is Incorrect: Based on official classification, SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is categorized as a technology demonstrator for autonomous docking; while it paves the way for a space station, it is not officially listed as a micro-gravity research mission in this context.

    Statement III is Correct: Gaganyaan, India's flagship human spaceflight program, includes multiple payloads for micro-gravity experiments to be conducted by the Vyomanauts in low Earth orbit.

    Note: After the release of the UPSC ANSWER KEY 2025, we have updated the correct answer to B.

  8. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:…

    Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I is correct: President's pardoning power can be subjected to limited judicial review, especially on grounds like mala fides, irrelevant considerations, or arbitrariness (as held in Kehar Singh, Epuru Sudhakar cases).

    Statement II is incorrect: President cannot act independently; the power must be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74.

  9. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types…

    With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) are aircraft systems operated without a human pilot onboard. Their capabilities depend on design type (like fixed-wing, multirotor, or hybrid) and power source.

    I. Vertical landing – Only VTOL and multirotor drones can do vertical landings. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot. II. Automated hovering – Only multirotor drones and advanced hybrids can hover. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover at all. III. Battery-only power – Not all UAVs use batteries. Larger ones may use fuel, hybrid, or solar power.

    None of the statements are correct.

  10. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area…

    Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I is Incorrect: Declaring an area "Scheduled" does not strip the State Government of its executive authority. Instead, it adds a layer of protection where the Governor acts as a custodian. The administration remains with the State, influenced by the advice of the Tribes Advisory Council (TAC).

    Statement II is Incorrect: Under Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule, the executive power of the Union extends only to giving directions to the State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. There is no provision within the Schedule for the "total takeover" of administration by the Union Government.

  11. Consider the following pairs: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II.…

    Consider the following pairs: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Pair I: International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 — Correct *The UN designated 2026 to honor the vital role of women in agriculture and to address gender inequalities in farming globally.*

    Pair II: International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 — Correct *2027 is proclaimed to promote tourism that supports sustainable development and resilience against climate and health challenges.*

    Pair III: International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 — Correct *The year 2025 focuses on fostering global peace, trust, and cooperation among nations and communities.*

    Pair IV: International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 — Correct *2029 marks the UN's focus on asteroid awareness and planetary defense, coinciding with asteroid Apophis's close approach.*

    Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matched.

  12. Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay…

    Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DOnly five
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Correct *Andes pass through Bolivia, forming the Altiplano plateau.*

    Statement II: Incorrect *Andes do not pass through Brazil, which lies on the Brazilian Plateau.*

    Statement III: Correct *Andes pass through Colombia, where they split into three mountain chains.*

    Statement IV: Correct *Andes run north-south through Ecuador, shaping its geography.*

    Statement V: Incorrect Paraguay lies in the interior lowlands; Andes do not pass through it.

    Statement VI: Correct *The Venezuelan Andes extend into western Venezuela (Cordillera de Mérida).*

    Correct Answer: (C) Only four Andes pass through: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela Not through: Brazil, Paraguay

  13. Consider the following pairs: Plant – Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger…

    Consider the following pairs: Plant – Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DAll the five
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Pair I – Cassava: Woody shrub → Correct Cassava (also called tapioca or manioc) is indeed a woody shrub cultivated for its starchy tuberous roots.

    Pair II – Ginger: Herb with pseudostem → Correct Ginger is a herbaceous perennial with a pseudostem formed by leaf sheaths; the edible part is the rhizome.

    Pair III – Malabar spinach: Herbaceous climber → Correct Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a soft, herbaceous twining climber, commonly grown as a leafy vegetable.

    Pair IV – Mint: Annual shrub → Incorrect Mint (Mentha spp.) is not a shrub; it is a perennial herb with soft stems, spreading by stolons.

    Pair V – Papaya: Woody shrub → Incorrect Papaya (Carica papaya) is a herbaceous tree (giant herb), not a woody shrub—it has a soft, hollow stem.

  14. Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore…

    Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DAll the five
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is expanding internationally, but only a few countries currently support international merchant payments under UPI.

    I. United Arab Emirates – Correct * UPI is accepted at select merchants in the UAE via NPCI partnerships.

    II. France – Correct * France allows UPI merchant payments at select tourist locations, like the Eiffel Tower.

    III. Germany – Incorrect * No official rollout of UPI for merchant payments in Germany as of now.

    IV. Singapore – Correct * UPI is live for both P2P remittances and merchant payments in Singapore.

    V. Bangladesh – Incorrect * UPI is not yet operational for merchant payments in Bangladesh.

    International merchant payments are accepted under UPI in seven countries outside of India: Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and the UAE.

  15. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government…

    Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit are key indicators used to assess a government's financial health.

    I. Revenue Deficit = ₹20,000 crores – Correct

    * Definition: Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts * Calculation: ₹80,000 crores − ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores

    II. Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores – Correct

    * Definition: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) * Alternatively, it reflects total borrowings needed to meet the gap * Given: Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores ⇒ Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores

    III. Primary Deficit = ₹4,000 crores – Correct

    * Definition: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments * Calculation: ₹10,000 crores − ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores

  16. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Cement manufacturing contributes significantly to global carbon emissions, mainly due to the chemical process involved in producing clinker.

    Statement I: Cement industry emissions are estimated to be around 5-8% of global CO₂ emissions, making it a major source of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone during cement making to provide essential minerals like silicon, aluminum, and iron needed for the final product. Statement III: During clinker production, limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated and converted into lime (calcium oxide), releasing CO₂ in the process. This calcination is the main source of carbon emissions in cement manufacturing.

    Both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III directly explains the source of carbon emissions mentioned in Statement I.

  17. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’…

    Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabharata'?

    1. AMahendravarman I
    2. BSimhavishnu
    3. CNarasimhavarman I
    4. DSimhavarman
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The correct answer is A. Mahendravarman I.

    Mahendravarman I, a 7th-century Pallava king, was known for his literary talent and artistic patronage. He adopted the titles 'Mattavilasa' (lover of playful sport), 'Vichitrachitta' (curious-minded or inventive), and 'Gunabharata' (full of virtues). He also authored the Sanskrit play *Mattavilasa Prahasana*, reflecting his cultural contributions.

    The other rulers listed did not assume these titles.

  18. Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution…

    Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates downstream activities like storage, distribution, and marketing—not upstream activities like production.

    I. Production of crude oil – Not regulated * This is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), not PNGRB.

    II. Refining, storage and distribution – Partially regulated * Storage and distribution are regulated by PNGRB. * Refining is generally not directly regulated, though PNGRB may set standards affecting it.

    III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated * PNGRB authorizes entities to market notified petroleum products and natural gas.

    IV. Production of natural gas – Not regulated * Like crude oil, it's an upstream activity, not under PNGRB.

  19. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I–Union List, in…

    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.

    Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State's executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States.

    Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor's office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.

  20. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I: Correct Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are essential in flat TV screens and monitors due to their role in producing vibrant colors and enhancing display quality.

    Statement II: Correct These elements exhibit phosphorescence—absorbing energy and slowly emitting light—which is key to their use in color reproduction and brightness in displays.

    Relationship: Statement II explains why rare earth elements are crucial in displays, confirming the reason behind Statement I.

    Therefore, both statements are correct and related.

  21. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: | Organization | Union Ministry |…

    With reference to India, consider the following pairs: | Organization | Union Ministry | |------------------------------------------|-------------------------------------------------| | I. The National Automotive Board | Ministry of Commerce and Industry | | II. The Coir Board | Ministry of Heavy Industries | | III. The National Centre for Trade Information| Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises | How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Pair I: The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry * Incorrect. It functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry.

    Pair II: The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries * Incorrect. The Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

    Pair III: National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of MSME * Incorrect. NCTI is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME.

  22. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’: I. It targets…

    Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI and III only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Correct: The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is a government initiative that targets the installation of rooftop solar systems in one crore households within the residential sector to provide free electricity.

    Statement 2 is Correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) aims to impart training on the installation, operation, maintenance, and repairs of solar rooftop systems at the grassroots level to support the scheme's infrastructure.

    Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme includes a dedicated capacity-building component designed to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling and up-skilling initiatives to meet the demand for solar technicians.

  23. Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel…

    Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative (powertrain) vehicles?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that do not use conventional petrol/diesel engines. Instead, they rely on clean energy sources like electricity or hydrogen.

    * I. BEVs – Run fully on batteries and electric motors. * II. FCEVs – Use hydrogen to make electricity via a fuel cell. * III. FCEHVs – Combine hydrogen fuel cell + battery + electric motor.

    All three are alternatives to traditional fuel vehicles.

  24. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    A circular economy focuses on minimizing waste, reusing resources, and improving efficiency, all of which help lower greenhouse gas emissions and conserve raw materials.

    Statement I: Correct By reducing waste and energy use, the circular economy helps cut greenhouse gas emissions.

    Statement II: Correct It reduces the need for raw materials through reuse, recycling, and product life extension.

    Statement III: Correct It also lowers production waste using efficient and sustainable design and processes.

  25. Consider the following statements: Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Correct Subtropical and temperate regions have more dust due to dry conditions, sparse vegetation, and strong winds.

    Statement II: Incorrect Subtropical and temperate regions have more dry winds, not less, which help lift dust.

    Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.

  26. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held…

    Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and III
    4. DI only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I is Correct: The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, from October 22 to 24, 2024. Russia held the rotating chairship for the year 2024.

    Statement II is Correct: Indonesia officially announced its intention to join BRICS and has been integrated into the bloc as a full member following the 16th Summit in Kazan, as part of the group's ongoing expansion to include key emerging economies from the Global South.

    Statement III is Incorrect: The official theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security." The statement incorrectly uses the word "Multiculturalism," which changes the diplomatic meaning of the theme.

  27. Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many…

    Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Many everyday items contain hidden plastics, even if they don't look like typical plastic products.

    * I. Cigarette butts – Filters are made of cellulose acetate, a form of plastic. * II. Eyeglass lenses – Usually made from polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass. * III. Car tyres – Contain synthetic rubber, which includes plastic-based polymers.

    All three items contain plastic.

  28. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where…

    The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above‐said report? I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I is correct: The World Bank's report on India's cooling sector and climate vulnerability highlights that extreme heat stress (wet-bulb temperatures) is linked to a wider set of climate implications, including more frequent and intense tropical cyclones, flooding, and droughts, particularly affecting the vulnerable Peninsular region.

    Statement II is correct: The wet-bulb temperature is a measure that combines heat and humidity. At 35°C wet-bulb, the air is too saturated for sweat to evaporate, preventing the body from shedding heat. This makes survival physically impossible for humans and animals without external cooling.

  29. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya?

    Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya?

    1. AAmoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
    2. BPrataparudra (Kakatiya)
    3. CRajendra I (Chola)
    4. DVishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The correct answer is C. Rajendra I (Chola).

    Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a famous naval expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom around 1025 CE. Srivijaya was a powerful maritime empire controlling the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and nearby islands. Rajendra I's campaign asserted Chola naval dominance in the region and secured control over important sea trade routes.

    The other rulers listed did not conduct campaigns against Srivijaya:

    * Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) focused mainly on the Deccan region. * Prataparudra (Kakatiya) ruled much later and was centered in the Deccan. * Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) focused on South Indian affairs.

  30. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary…

    GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI only
    4. DI and II only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Correct *GAGAN is an Indian SBAS developed by ISRO and AAI to enhance GPS accuracy and integrity, crucial for aviation safety.*

    Statement II: Correct *It improves GPS reliability and accuracy, enabling better air traffic management and safer, efficient navigation.*

    Statement III: Incorrect *GAGAN's benefits extend beyond aviation to railways, roadways, maritime, agriculture, and disaster management.*

    Correct Answer: Only Statements I and II are correct.

Mains Q&A 80

  1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program, MGNREGA was earlier known as National Rural Employment Scheme, NREGA. It is an Indian Social Welfare Program that aimed at fulfilling the ‘Right to Work’ provisions made in the Constitution. MGNREGA was launched in 2006 under Rural Employment Sector by the Ministry of Rural Development. Main objective of the program is to give legal guarantee of wage employment to the adult members of rural households who are willing to do unskilled manual labour work subject to a maximum of 100 days per year for every household. Every rural household has the right to register under the scheme, job card is issued to the registered, Job Card holder can seek employment; State Government shall pay 25% of minimum wage for the first 30 days as compensatory daily unemployment allowance to the families and of wage for remaining period of the year. MGNREGA work was undertaken by various Gram Panchayats. You have been appointed as an Administrator Incharge of the District. You have been given the responsibility of monitoring MGNREGA work undertaken by various Gram Panchayats. You are also given the authority to give technical sanctions to all MGNREGA works. In one of the Panchayats in your jurisdiction, you notice that your predecessor has mismanaged the Program in terms of: (i) Money not disbursed to actual job-seekers. (ii) Muster Rolls of the Labourers not properly maintained. (iii) Mismatch between the work done and payments made. (iv) Payments made to fictitious persons. (v) Job Cards were given without looking into the need of person. (vi) Mismanagement of funds and to the extent of siphoning of funds. (vii) Approved works that never existed. (a) What is your reaction to the above situation and how do you restore the proper functioning of MGNREGA Program in this regard? (b) What actions would you initiate to solve the various issues listed above? (c) How would you deal with the above situation?