UPSC 2025 GS Paper-I (Set B): Question-by-Question Answer Key, Analysis & Study Notes

Note. The answers given below are AnantamIAS’s analysis, cross-checked against multiple Tier-1 coaching keys (Vision IAS, Forum IAS, Insights, Drishti) as of November 2025. UPSC’s official key has not been released. We flag a few items where consensus is contested.

Question 1

Consider the following types of vehicles :
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell – electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three · Deep notes →

Why: All three are alternative powertrains — the term covers any drivetrain that is NOT the conventional internal-combustion engine. Battery EVs use stored electricity; hydrogen fuel-cell EVs generate electricity from H2; fuel-cell hybrids combine fuel cells with a smaller battery.

Question 2

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements :
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None · Deep notes →

Why: None are universally true. Only VTOL/rotary UAVs do vertical landing — fixed-wing UAVs need runways. Only multirotor UAVs do automated hovering. UAVs use combustion engines, hybrid powerplants and solar in addition to batteries.

Question 3

In the context of electric vehicle, batteries, consider the following elements :
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three · Deep notes →

Why: Cobalt, lithium and nickel make up the cathode of typical Li-ion cells (NMC, NCA chemistries). Graphite is the anode material, not cathode.

Question 5

Consider the following substances
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three · Deep notes →

Why: Coal gasification produces syngas (CO + H2), which can be converted to all three. Ethanol via syngas fermentation or Fischer–Tropsch; nitroglycerine via glycerol + nitric acid (HNO3 derivable from syngas-ammonia); urea from ammonia + CO2 (both from syngas).

Question 6

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

1. (a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
2. (b) These are explosives in military weapons
3. (c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
4. (d) These fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

Why: All three are high-energy military explosives. CL-20 (HNIW) and HMX are nitramine-class explosives; LLM-105 is an insensitive high explosive used in modern warheads.

Question 7

Consider the following statements :
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine ‘learning.

Which of the statements given above correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Why: Statement I (Majorana 1 enables quantum computing) is correct — Microsoft’s 2025 announcement. Statement II is wrong — it’s Microsoft, not AWS. Statement III (deep learning is a subset of ML) is correct.

Question 8

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III · Deep notes →

Why: All three correct. mAbs are lab-made (man-made) proteins; they augment the immune response by binding antigens; and they target specific cells (cancer cells, viral proteins, receptors).

Question 9

Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

Why: All three are wrong. Marine viruses exist in trillions; bacteriophages infect bacteria; viruses (oncoviruses, latent viruses) routinely alter host gene transcription.

Question 10

Consider the following statements Statement I : Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Why: Both statements are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for I. Activated carbon’s large surface area (~1,000-3,000 m²/g) enables physical adsorption of dissolved organics and gases.

Question 54

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I, II and III
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I only
4. (d) I and II only

Answer: (c) I only

Why: Both correct (specifics depend on stem). GAGAN is India’s SBAS jointly developed by ISRO and AAI, certified for civil aviation precision approach.

Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding Al Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct. France co-hosted with India; the summit followed the UK’s Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit (Nov 2023) and Seoul (May 2024).

Question 61

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors. Statement II : Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct. Yttrium and europium are used in colour TV/monitor phosphors; many REEs exhibit phosphorescence/fluorescence used in lasers and lighting.

Question 63

Consider the following space missions :
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two · Deep notes →

Why: Axiom-4 (Shubhanshu Shukla on ISS) and Gaganyaan (Indian human spaceflight) involve microgravity research. SpaDeX is purely a docking-technology demonstrator without microgravity-research payloads.

Question 65

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

1. (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
2. (b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
3. (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
4. (d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate · Deep notes →

Why: Silver iodide and potassium iodide are common cloud-seeding agents because their crystal structures mimic ice nuclei. UPSC official key is (c) AgI + KNO3 by some sources — verify.

Question 4

Consider the following :
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres

How many of them contair/plastic?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three · Deep notes →

Why: All three contain plastic. Cigarette filters use cellulose acetate (a plastic); eyeglass lenses are commonly polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic; car tyres contain synthetic rubber (a polymer/plastic) blended with natural rubber.

Question 11

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II : Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III : Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Why: Both statements are factually true (cement is ~7-8% of global CO2; cement chemistry does involve silica). But Statement II does not directly explain WHY cement emits so much CO2 — the actual cause is the calcination of limestone (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2).

Question 12

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct but II doesn’t ‘explain’ I — India’s refusal stems from concerns about agricultural-emissions implications, not from WHO’s leadership of the declaration.

Question 13

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis. Statement II : Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III : As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Why: Statement I is correct (axis shift documented). Statement II is wrong — the shift is driven by melting ice sheets and groundwater extraction, not solar flares.

Question 14

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct and II explains I — Article 6 establishes voluntary cooperation through ITMOs (6.2), centralized mechanisms (6.4) and non-market approaches (6.8). These mechanisms ARE what makes Article 6 a discussion focus.

Question 15

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

1. (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
3. (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
4. (d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Why: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched it in 2024 to scale up nature-based solutions financing across Asia-Pacific.

Question 16

With reference to Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) I, II and III
4. (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Why: Both correct. DAC pulls CO2 directly from ambient air; the captured CO2 is either stored underground (sequestration) or used for products. Either way it reduces atmospheric GHG concentrations.

Question 17

Regarding Peacock tarantula tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements :
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) I and III
3. (c) II only
4. (d) II and III

Answer: (b) I and III

Why: Statement I is wrong — it’s an arachnid (spider), not a crustacean, and is carnivorous. II is correct — endemic to a tiny forest patch in Andhra Pradesh (Gooty). III is correct — IUCN Critically Endangered.

Question 18

Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita.
II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I and III only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) II and III only
4. (d) I, II and II

Answer: (b) II only

Why: I is wrong — India’s per-capita CO2 is ~1.9 t (still well below world average of ~4.7 t, but above 0.5 t). II is correct — India ranks 2nd in Asia-Pacific after China.

Question 19

Consider the following pairs : Plant Description
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only two
2. (b) Only three,
3. (c) Only four
4. (d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three,

Why: Three are correct: Cassava IS a woody shrub; Ginger has a herbaceous pseudostem; Malabar spinach IS a herbaceous climber. Mint is a perennial herb (not annual shrub); Papaya is a herbaceous tree (not woody shrub).

Question 20

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce(more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photo synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water Contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. (a) I and II
2. (b) II only
3. (c) I and III
4. (d) None of the above statements is correct.

Answer: (b) II only

Why: I is wrong — oceans (via phytoplankton) produce 50-80% of atmospheric O2, more than rainforests. II is correct.

Question 39

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct I.

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Why: All three correct — these are the defining benefits of circularity (reduce, reuse, recycle, redesign).

Question 44

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct. India produces 75-80% of world turmeric; 30+ recognised varieties in cultivation.

Question 50

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Why: Both correct and connected — small and marginal farmers own the bulk of indigenous breeds; the mission boosts their productivity and income.

Question 70

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

1. (a) The European Union
2. (b) The World Bank
3. (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
4. (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a) The European Union

Why: The European Union enacted the NRL in 2024, the first major continental law to restore ecosystems with binding targets.

Question 73

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Why: I is WRONG. The USA is the world’s largest ethanol producer (corn-based), Brazil is second (sugarcane-based). II about flex-fuel framework is correct contextually.

Question 74

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.

Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II · Deep notes →

Why: Both implications correct. 35°C wet-bulb is the human-survivability ceiling; routine excedance threatens outdoor work, agricultural productivity, and public health.

Question 95

Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Why: All three — Portuguese introduced papaya (Carica papaya), pineapple (Ananas comosus) and guava (Psidium guajava) to India from the New World via the Columbian Exchange.

Question 31

With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
III. Stocks
II. Hedge Funds
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Why: Hedge funds and venture capital are SEBI-recognised AIFs (Cat I/II/III). Bonds and stocks are conventional investments, not AIFs.

Question 32

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II, III and IV
3. (c) I, III, IV and V
4. (d) I, II and V

Answer: (c) I, III, IV and V

Why: I, II and IV are correct. RBI earns from G-sec open-market operations, forex transactions, and LAF/MSF lending. RBI does NOT manage pension funds — PFRDA does.

Question 33

With reference to the Government India, consider the following information: Organization Some of its functions It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue Ministry of Finance.

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one · Deep notes →

Why: Only the ED-Ministry of Finance pair is correct. ED enforces FEMA, PMLA and Fugitive Economic Offenders Act under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Question 34

Consider the following statements :
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Why: I is wrong — SEBI (not RBI) mandates BRSR. II is correct — applies to top 1000 listed entities by market cap.

Question 35

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II Statement correct and explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Why: I is wrong — only crop agriculture is fully exempt (Sec 10(1)); poultry, dairy, fisheries income is generally taxable as ‘business income’. II is correct (Sec 80GG allows rent deduction for those without HRA).

Question 36

Consider the following statements :
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Why: India became MSP partner in June 2023 (I correct). II is wrong — India is import-dependent for several critical minerals (lithium, cobalt, nickel). III is wrong on stated location.

Question 37

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Why: Both correct and II explains I. In liquidation, bondholders are senior creditors and are paid out before equity holders.

Question 38

Consider the following statements :
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Why: Both true. India accounts for over 80% of global equity option volume (NSE leads worldwide); the Indian stock market is among the fastest-growing.

Question 40

Consider the following statements :
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are the correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only

Why: I and II correct. III is wrong — interest receipts are REVENUE receipts, not capital receipts.

Question 71

Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs. 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs. 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs. 10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs. 6,000 crores.

Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is Rs. 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is Rs. 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is Rs. 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only · Deep notes →

Why: Revenue Deficit = RE – RR = 80-60 = ₹20K cr. Fiscal Deficit = Total Exp – Total Revenue & non-debt CR = approx borrowings = ₹10K cr. Effective RD = RD – Grants for capital assets = ₹18K cr potentially. Verify with options.

Question 75

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at Rs. 50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs. 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are Rs. 1,500 crores.

What is the gross primary deficit?

1. (a) Rs. 48,500 crores
2. (b) Rs. 51,500 crores
3. (c) Rs. 58,500 crores
4. (d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Rs. 48,500 crores

Why: Primary Deficit = FD – Interest = 50K – 15K = ₹35K cr (assuming the question gives interest 15K not 1.5K — verify).

Question 76

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II.45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I, II and III
2. (b) I, II and IV
3. (c) I, III and IV
4. (d) II, III and IV

Answer: (d) II, III and IV

Why: 15th FC made several recommendations on health, local-body grants, performance-based grants — all options likely correct.

Question 78

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) I and II
3. (c) I and III
4. (d) III only

Answer: (c) I and III

Why: Both correct. RTGS settles individually in real time; NEFT batches at intervals. RTGS has a ₹2 lakh minimum; NEFT has no minimum.

Question 80

Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) I and III only
3. (c) II and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III · Deep notes →

Why: All three correct. PMSGMBY targets 1 crore households, MNRE is nodal ministry, central subsidy up to ₹78,000 per household.

Question 90

Consider the following activities :
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only three
3. (b) Only two
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only three

Why: PNGRB regulates downstream activities — refining/storage/distribution of petroleum AND marketing/sale. Upstream (crude oil and natural gas production) is regulated by DGH under Ministry of Petroleum.

Question 51

Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review he financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III · Deep notes →

Why: I is wrong — small states (Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, etc.) exempt below 20-lakh population threshold. II is wrong — eligibility age is 21 for membership, but the question’s wording is misleading; the constitutional minimum age to contest Panchayat is 21, BUT only after 2024 amendment lowered it from 25 — re-verify. Most key sources show II wrong on the year-of-eligibility framing.

Question 58

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) III only
2. (b) II and III
3. (c) I and IV
4. (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (b) II and III · Deep notes →

Why: I is wrong — Lokpal jurisdiction extends to Indian public servants posted abroad too (Sec 14, Lokpal Act). II is the correct statement about term/disqualification (5 years or 70, etc.)

Question 66

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Why: Both correct. SC in Maru Ram and Epuru Sudhakar established limited judicial review on grounds of arbitrariness, mala fide, etc. President acts on Council of Ministers’ advice (Art 74).

Question 67

Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then) Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Why: I is correct (Art 94 — Speaker vacates immediately before first sitting of new House). II is incorrect on the office-of-profit clause as worded.

Question 68

Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only · Deep notes →

Why: I is wrong — the SPEAKER (not President) decides 10th Schedule disqualification (Para 6). II is correct.

Question 69

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Why: I is wrong — states DO have rule-making power for minor minerals (Sec 15 MMDR Act). II is correct on the broader framework.

Question 81

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only · Deep notes →

Why: I correct (ordinances have force of law). II is WRONG — ordinances cannot abridge fundamental rights (Art 13). III correct.

Question 83

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one · Deep notes →

Why: Only Inter-State Council (Art 263) is constitutional. National Security Council is executive creation (1998); Zonal Councils are statutory (States Reorganisation Act 1956).

Question 84

Consider the following statements
I. The Constitution of India/explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Why: I correct — Art 163(1) mentions Governor’s discretion explicitly. II wrong — FR suspension during Emergency is by Cabinet advice + Art 359.

Question 85

Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Why: Article 50 (Separation of Judiciary from Executive) IS in DPSP — correct. Other options likely misstate provisions’ Schedules/Parts.

Question 86

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only · Deep notes →

Why: I is wrong — State retains executive power; Governor exercises special powers. II is correct on TAC functions.

Question 87

With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

Why: All three are mismatched. NAB is under Heavy Industries; Coir Board under MSME; ITPO under Commerce. UPSC tests precise ministry knowledge here.

Question 88

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only

Why: Articles regarding the Union List and Governor’s office conditions require ratification under Art 368(2) Proviso (Schedule VII changes + GS conditions).

Question 89

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Why: Both correct. Art 361 grants immunity to Governor; civil servants of Union/State hold office during pleasure of President/Governor respectively (Art 310).

Question 41

Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden.
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

1. (a) Only three
2. (b) Only four
3. (c) Only five
4. (d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four · Deep notes →

Why: Four — Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), North Macedonia (2020), Sweden (2024). Austria has constitutional neutrality. Serbia is not a member.

Question 42

Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

1. (a) Only two
2. (b) Only three
3. (c) Only four
4. (d) Only five

Answer: (b) Only three

Why: Three — Bolivia, Colombia and Ecuador. Brazil and Paraguay are east of the Andes.

Question 43

Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

Why: None. Tanganyika is 3-9°S; Tonle Sap is 12-13°N (Cambodia); Patos Lagoon is 30-32°S (Brazil). Equator (0°) doesn’t touch any.

Question 45

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) I and III only
2. (b) I and II only
3. (c) I, II and III
4. (d) II and III only

Answer: (d) II and III only · Deep notes →

Why: All three are classic Wegener-style evidence: matching rock belts, mineral deposits, and fossil/coal seams across the Atlantic.

Question 46

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Why: Both true and connected — subtropical regions have arid surfaces, dry winds (e.g. Harmattan, Khamsin) and major desert sources (Sahara, Arabia, Thar). Equatorial regions have rainforest cover and polar regions have ice.

Question 47

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Why: Both correct and II explains I. Land cools faster than ocean in winter, so isotherms over land bend toward equator (cooler than expected); ocean retains heat, so isotherms bend poleward.

Question 48

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Why: Both correct and II explains I. Chalk’s coarse, porous structure allows water passage; clay’s fine particle structure traps water — classic aquifer/aquiclude pair.

Question 49

Consider the following statements :
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and III only
2. (b) I and II only
3. (c) I, II and III
4. (d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct. The greenhouse effect (water vapour, CO2, methane) raises mean Earth surface temperature from ~-18°C (no atmosphere) to ~15°C (current). Without it, Earth’s surface would average below freezing.

Question 72

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

1. (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
2. (b) India to Central Asia via China
3. (c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
4. (d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran · Deep notes →

Why: International North-South Transport Corridor connects India to Iran (Chabahar/Bandar Abbas), then Caspian crossing to Russia, onwards to Europe — bypassing Suez.

Question 79

Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

1. (a) Only two
2. (b) Only three
3. (c) Only four
4. (d) All the five

Answer: (a) Only two

Why: As of 2024-25, India has SRVA arrangements with 22+ countries — UAE, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Singapore among them. Of the listed, UAE and Singapore (or alternate two) per official key. Verify.

Question 82

Consider the following pairs : State Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Why: I is correct — Itanagar named after Ita Fort; Arunachal has Namdapha + Mouling NPs. II is incorrect on the stated formation basis.

Question 96

Consider the following countries :
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark.
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

1. (a) All the five
2. (b) Only four
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) Only two

Answer: (d) Only two

Why: Only two — France (not in list) and USA are usual answers; in this set, Denmark (with Greenland) and the United Kingdom (with overseas territories) have multiple zones. Verify with key.

Question 97

Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Why: Both correct. The International Date Line passes between Russia (UTC+12) and Alaska (UTC-9), so the two cities are ~21 hours apart despite being geographically close.

Question 99

Consider the following pairs : Country Resource-rich in
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia : Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Why: All three correct. Botswana is a top diamond producer; Chile is world’s #2 lithium producer (Salar de Atacama); Indonesia leads global nickel production.

Question 100

Consider the following pairs : Region Country
I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (d) None

Why: None — Mallorca is in Spain (Balearic Islands), Normandy is in France, Sardinia is in Italy. All three pairs are wrong.

Question 21

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy :
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II · Deep notes →

Why: Both correct. Roy respected Vedanta and Upanishads; he simultaneously campaigned for English education and Western scientific rationalism.

Question 22

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence p
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two · Deep notes →

Why: I correct — boycott of courts/cloth was core. II correct — strict non-violence was the Gandhian condition. III is WRONG — surrender (not retention) of titles was a key plank.

Question 23

The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

1. (a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
2. (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
3. (c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
4. (d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Why: Araghatta (Persian wheel / rahat) is a large wheel with earthen pots tied to its rim that lifts water as it rotates. Widely used from c. 8th century onwards in Indian agriculture.

Question 24

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara?

1. (a) Mahendravarman I
2. (b) Simhavishnu
3. (c) Narasimhavarman I
4. (d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

Why: Mahendravarman I (Pallava, r. ~600-630 CE) used these epithets. He authored the Sanskrit satire Mattavilasa Prahasana, hence the title.

Question 25

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

1. (a) Samudragupta
2. (b) Chandragupta II
3. (c) Kumaragupta I
4. (d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Why: Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India c. 399-414 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya).

Question 26

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and he neighbouring islands?

1. (a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
2. (b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
3. (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
4. (d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: (b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

Why: Rajendra Chola I, around 1025 CE, sent the Chola navy across the Bay of Bengal to attack Srivijaya — a unique blue-water expedition in Indian history.

Question 27

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs : Territorial region River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka : Godavari
II. Kamboja : Vipas
III. Avanti : Mahanadi
IV. Kosala : Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two · Deep notes →

Why: Asmaka-Godavari correct; Kosala-Sarayu correct. Kamboja was watered by the Indus tributaries (not Vipas/Beas, which is Trigarta). Avanti was on the Narmada/Sipra, not Mahanadi.

Question 28

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

1. (a) Delhi
2. (b) Gwalior
3. (c) Ujjain
4. (d) Lahore

Answer: (d) Lahore

Why: Lahore. Paluskar opened the institution to bring Hindustani classical music out of court-patronage and into mass education.

Question 29

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and Yukta’ were important officers at the

1. (a) village-level administration
2. (b) district-level administration
3. (c) provincial administration
4. (d) level of the central administration

Answer: (b) district-level administration

Why: District-level administration. Pradeshika and Rajuka headed districts (with judicial and revenue powers); Yukta were subordinate clerical/accounting officers.

Question 30

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II · Deep notes →

Why: Both standard NCM facts. Congress declared the attainment of Swaraj by ‘all legitimate and peaceful means’ as the objective at the 1920 Nagpur session.

Question 91

“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

1. (a) the Champaran Satyagraha
2. (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
3. (c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
4. (d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

Why: Gandhi’s statement during the Dandi (Salt) March / civil disobedience era (1930). The phrase reframes lawful protest as moral duty.

Question 92

The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

1. (a) carnelian
2. (b) clay
3. (c) bronze
4. (d) gold

Answer: (c) bronze

Why: Bronze — the famous 10.5 cm figurine is a lost-wax bronze casting, one of the earliest known examples of bronze sculpture worldwide.

Question 93

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

1. (a) C. R. Das
2. (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
3. (c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
4. (d) M.A. Jinnah

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant · Deep notes →

Why: Madan Mohan Malaviya led the defence team that saved 151 of 172 condemned accused from death sentence.

Question 94

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

1. (a) The Poona Pact
2. (b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact) Agreement
3. (c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
4. (d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact) Agreement

Why: After the Poona Pact (Sep 1932), Gandhi made anti-untouchability work part of the Congress’s constructive programme.

Question 98

Who among the following was founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement?

1. (a) Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
2. (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
4. (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Why: Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker founded the Self-Respect Movement (Suya Mariyadhai Iyakkam) in Tamil Nadu in 1925.

Question 52

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are_correct?

1. (a) I and II
2. (b) II and III
3. (c) I and IV
4. (d) I Only

Answer: (d) I Only · Deep notes →

Why: I is wrong — BIMSTEC has 7 members (India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand), but the I statement asks ’till January 2025′ which is correct — re-check. II is wrong — founded by the Bangkok Declaration 1997, not Dhaka.

Question 56

Consider the following pairs :
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer:2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three

Why: All three are correctly paired with their UN-declared years.

Question 57

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS; I.16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I and II
2. (b) II and III
3. (c) I and III
4. (d) I only

Answer: (d) I only

Why: All correct. 16th BRICS Summit was hosted by Russia in Kazan (Oct 2024). Indonesia formally joined in 2025. Theme involved ‘Strengthening Multilateralism’ / global development.

Question 62

Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only

Why: I is wrong — NRP targets 2030, not 2028. II is correct — Kavach is RDSO-developed indigenous Automatic Train Protection.

Question 64

With reference to India’s consider the following pairs: Aircraft type Description
I. Dornier-228 Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globe-master III Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Why: Dornier-228 IS maritime patrol (correct); C-17 IS military transport (correct); IL-76 is subsonic heavy-lift transport, NOT supersonic combat aircraft.

Question 77

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War
II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only

Why: I correct (IBRD targets MICs and creditworthy LICs). II wrong (works alongside IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID). III correct.

Question 59

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Why: All three correct. First Kho Kho World Cup held Jan 2025 at IGI Stadium, Delhi. India men won 78-40 vs Nepal; India women also won the title.

Question 60

Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Why: I is wrong — Gukesh became youngest World Chess Champion (Dec 2024), but that was the World Championship vs Ding Liren, NOT the Chess Olympiad. II is correct — India won team gold at Budapest 2024 Olympiad.

Question 53

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. (a) II and IV only
2. (b) I, II and III
3. (c) II, III and IV
4. (d) I and III only

Answer: (d) I and III only

Why: Jury includes PM (chair), CJI, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and two eminent persons. President is NOT on the jury (the President confers the award).