2019

Statement 1 is correct: The 2018 Amendment expanded Fixed-Term Employment (FTE) to all sectors. FTE allows an employer to hire a worker for a fixed period via a written contract. A key feature of FTE is that the "termination of service of the workman as a result of non-renewal of the contract" does not amount to retrenchment. Since retrenchment procedures (under the Industrial Disputes Act) are the primary hurdle to laying off workers in India, FTE makes it significantly easier for firms to reduce their workforce.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, a temporary workman is defined as a person engaged for work which is of an essentially temporary nature. The rules explicitly state that no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary for such a workman. Furthermore, for Fixed-Term workers, the 2018 rules specify that no notice is required if the employment ends due to the expiry of the contract.

* India signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with Russia.

* India and Russia have a long-standing strategic partnership in the field of civil nuclear cooperation.

* The agreement aims to enhance collaboration in areas such as nuclear fuel cycle management, nuclear power projects, and research in nuclear science and technology.

* Russia has been a key partner in India's nuclear energy sector, particularly through Rosatom, which has been involved in building Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KNPP) in Tamil Nadu.

* Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States have also engaged in nuclear cooperation with India but were not part of this specific agreement.

Remote sensing is the process of detecting and monitoring the physical characteristics of an area by measuring its reflected and emitted radiation at a distance from the targeted area.

Statement 1 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can indeed be used to estimate the chlorophyll content in vegetation. This is done by measuring the reflectance of light from the vegetation. The chlorophyll in plants absorbs light for photosynthesis, and the amount of light reflected back can give an estimate of the chlorophyll content.

Statement 2 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can also be used to estimate greenhouse gas emissions. This is done by detecting the radiations emitted by the substances in the rice paddies.

Statement 3 is correct. Satellite images and remote sensing data can be used to measure land surface temperatures as well. This is done by detecting the infrared radiation emitted by the land surface.

Therefore, all three parameters can be measured or estimated using satellite images or remote sensing data.

RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the expression of protein-coding genes.

Statement 1 is correct. RNAi is a powerful tool for developing gene-silencing therapies. It allows researchers to target specific genes and reduce their expression, which can be beneficial in treating various diseases.

Statement 2 is also correct. RNAi is being actively explored for cancer therapy. By targeting genes involved in cancer cell growth and proliferation, RNAi has the potential to be a novel approach for cancer treatment.

Statement 3 is incorrect. RNAi is not typically used in developing hormone replacement therapies. Hormone replacement therapies introduce hormones into the body, while RNAi focuses on silencing gene expression within cells.

Statement 4 is correct. RNAi can be used to develop crop plants resistant to viral pathogens. By introducing specific RNA molecules that target the virus, plants can be made more resistant to viral infections, improving agricultural yields.

Statement 1 is incorrect. While genetic factors can contribute to susceptibility to infections, they are not directly related to the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect use of antibiotics, including taking incorrect doses or not completing the full course of treatment, can contribute to the development of drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Statement 3 is correct. The widespread use of antibiotics in livestock farming can lead to the development of drug-resistant pathogens that can affect both animals and humans.

Statement 4 is incorrect. While individuals with chronic diseases may be more susceptible to infections, this factor is not directly related to the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens.

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are highly toxic pesticides (specifically organophosphates and carbamates) used in agriculture. These chemicals are viewed with apprehension due to their acute toxicity and harmful effects on human health, non-target organisms, and the environment. Based on the recommendations of the Anupam Verma Committee, which reviewed 66 pesticides that were banned or restricted in other countries but continued to be used in India, the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare issued notifications to ban or phase out these specific hazardous substances to ensure safety in the agricultural sector.

Statement 1 is correct: Global warming poses a significant threat to methane hydrate deposits. These icy structures, found in permafrost and deep-sea sediments, can destabilize as temperatures rise, releasing methane into the atmosphere. Since methane is a potent greenhouse gas its release could create a positive feedback loop, further accelerating global warming.

Statement 2 is correct: Large deposits of methane hydrate are primarily found in two locations: 1. Arctic Tundra: Permafrost soils in the Arctic hold significant methane hydrate reserves, which are at risk of melting due to rising temperatures. 2. Seafloor Deposits: Continental margins and deep ocean sediments contain vast methane hydrate reserves. Changes in ocean temperature and pressure fluctuations can trigger their release.

Statement 3 is correct: After about 12 years, the methane is converted into carbon dioxide through hydroxyl oxidation. While CO₂ is a less potent greenhouse gas than methane, its longer atmospheric lifetime means it continues contributing to long-term climate change.

Therefore, option (D) 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Dewdrops are formed when the temperature drops to the dew point and the air becomes saturated with water vapour.

On a clear night, the Earth's surface loses heat through radiation and can reach a temperature low enough to form dewdrops.

However, on a cloudy night, the clouds act like a blanket, reflecting back the Earth's radiation. This keeps the temperature of the air near the ground warmer, preventing it from reaching the dew point and thus, dewdrops are not formed.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

Option A is incorrect. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) primarily focuses on macroeconomic policies, financial stability, and global monetary cooperation, but it does not publish the Global Competitiveness Report.

Option B is incorrect. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) deals with trade, investment, and development issues but is not responsible for this report.

Option C is correct. The World Economic Forum (WEF) releases the Global Competitiveness Report (GCR), which assesses the competitiveness of countries based on various economic indicators such as infrastructure, macroeconomic stability, health, education, market efficiency, and innovation.

Option D is incorrect. The World Bank publishes reports related to economic development, poverty reduction, and business environments, such as the Ease of Doing Business Report, but it does not release the Global Competitiveness Report.

The Vijayanagara style of architecture is characterized by the addition of elaborate 'Kalyana Mandapas' (marriage halls) within the temple complex, intended for the ceremonial marriage of the deity. Other distinct features of this period include the 'Amman Shrine' (for the principal deity's consort), tall 'Raya Gopurams' (gateways), and highly decorated pillars featuring mythical animals like the 'Yali' or charging horses.

Herbivorous turtles: Many turtle species, such as the green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise, are primarily herbivores, feeding on leaves, fruits, and other plant material.

Herbivorous fish: There are numerous herbivorous fish species, including surgeonfish, parrotfish, and tangs. These fish feed on algae and seaweed, playing a crucial role in maintaining healthy coral reef ecosystems.

Herbivorous marine mammals: While many marine mammals are carnivorous, some, like manatees and dugongs, are herbivores, feeding on seagrasses and other underwater plants.

Viviparous snakes: Not all snakes lay eggs; some, like boas, vipers, and sea snakes, are viviparous. This means they give birth to live young that have developed inside the mother's body.

* Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation into space. As they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thus, thinning cirrus clouds would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation and are proposed as a form of climate engineering to reduce global warming.


* Another proposed Geo-engineering technique involves injecting reflective sulphate aerosol particles into Earth's lower stratosphere to cast a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back into space and cool the planet off.

Thus, both are climate engineering/ Geo-engineering techniques to reduce global warming.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006. It is not the first regulatory body in India; several others were established much earlier, such as the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which was granted statutory status in 1992, and the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), established in 1997.

Statement 2 is Correct: One of the primary mandates of the PNGRB, as defined in the PNGRB Act, 2006, is to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas, and to promote competitive markets within the sector.

Statement 3 is Correct: Under Section 30 of the PNGRB Act, 2006, the Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (known as the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity or APTEL) acts as the appellate authority to hear appeals against the decisions or orders of the PNGRB.

* Service area approach (SAA) is an improved version of area approach of Lead Bank Scheme.

* Under SAA plan, each commercial bank / RRB branch in the rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for the planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas.

* The designated branch of a bank has to meet the banking needs of its service area vis--vis forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity, and increase in income levels of the villages.

To determine the ascending order (lowest to highest) of forest cover as a percentage of the total geographical area of the state, we refer to the ISFR 2021 data:

1. Maharashtra (3): 16.51% 2. Madhya Pradesh (2): 25.14%

3. Odisha (4): 33.50% 4. Chhattisgarh (1): 41.21%

Ascending Order: 16.51% (Maharashtra) < 25.14% (Madhya Pradesh) < 33.50% (Odisha) < 41.21% (Chhattisgarh). Therefore, the correct sequence is 3-2-4-1.


* Tansen was the title given by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandhavgarh. Thus, option 'A' is not correct.

* Dhrupad Compositions: Tansen is credited with composing Dhrupad, a classical Indian vocal form, and some of these compositions might have been dedicated to Hindu deities.

* Songs for Patrons: As a court musician, it was common for Tansen to compose songs in praise of his patrons, including Emperor Akbar.

* Invention of Ragas: While the exact number of Ragas invented by Tansen is debatable, he is credited with innovating and popularising several Ragas in Hindustani classical music.

Statement 1 is Correct: Ad Hoc Committees are temporary committees established by Parliament for specific purposes, such as investigating irregularities or reviewing the functioning of specific regulatory bodies through Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs).

Statement 2 is Correct: Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) ensure executive accountability by reviewing the annual reports, budgetary allocations, and overall performance of statutory regulators falling under their respective ministries.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 primarily responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources (tax proceeds) between the Union and the States.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was an ad hoc body set up to review and rewrite the legal-institutional framework of the financial sector; it does not perform ongoing reviews of sectoral regulators.

Statement 5 is Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank that provides strategic and technical advice to the government; it lacks the statutory mandate to formally review or oversee the functioning of independent regulators.

The merger of black holes is expected to generate powerful gravitational waves.

Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime caused by accelerating massive objects. Detecting these waves with instruments like LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) allows us to study these events even when they are too far away or obscured to observe directly. This opens a new window for astronomical observations.

Statement 1 is incorrect: LTE is actually marketed as 4G, not 3G. VoLTE is not marketed as advanced 3G, but rather as an advancement over 4G LTE, allowing for voice calls over the 4G network.

Statement 2 is incorrect: LTE does primarily focus on providing high-speed data services, but it's not a data-only technology. VoLTE, on the other hand, is not a voice-only technology. It allows for voice calls to be made over the 4G LTE network, but it doesn't exclude data services.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The recent amendment to the India Forest Act,1927 does not provide for the right of forest dwellers to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is classified as a minor forest produce.

Statement 3 is correct. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows forest dwellers to own, collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other forest produce.

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is a vital ecological hotspot located in the Western Ghats of southern India. It serves as a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated and wild plant species, including many rare, endemic, and medicinal plants.

The biosphere reserve spans across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, covering diverse ecosystems from tropical forests to montane grasslands. It includes three wildlife sanctuaries Shendurney (Kerala), Peppara (Kerala) and Neyyar (Kerala), as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu).

Option C is correct: The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, include detailed guidelines under Schedule I regarding the 'Specifications for Sanitary Landfills'. This schedule provides exact and elaborate criteria for site selection, such as maintaining a distance of at least 100 meters from rivers, 200 meters from state and national highways, 500 meters from habitations, and 20 km from airports.

Option A is incorrect: The rules mandate waste generators to segregate waste into three categories: Bio-degradable (wet waste), Non-biodegradable (dry waste), and Domestic Hazardous Waste (such as diapers, napkins, and cleaning agents).

Option B is incorrect: The rules have a broad scope and apply to every urban local body, outgrowths in urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, ports, special economic zones, and places of religious or historical importance.

Option D is incorrect: There is no restriction in the rules prohibiting the movement of waste across district lines. In fact, the rules encourage the development of regional sanitary landfills to be shared by multiple local bodies for better waste management efficiency.

Statement 1 is correct: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both National and State levels. - National CAMPA Oversees the national-level administration of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF). It lays down broad guidelines and ensures proper utilisation of funds across states. - State CAMPA established in each state, manage funds allocated for compensatory afforestation activities within their jurisdiction.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not explicitly mandate people's participation in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Act. The Act focuses on the management and utilisation of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund but does not have a specific provision for mandatory public participation.

Statement 1 is incorrect. AR enhances the real world, not shuts it out. Augmented reality (AR) overlays digital elements on top of the real world, allowing users to see both simultaneously.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Virtual Reality (VR) creates a completely immersive and simulated environment that replaces the real world. Users wear a headset that blocks out their surroundings and projects a computer-generated world they can interact with.

Statement 3 is correct. AR often utilises the camera on a smartphone or PC to overlay digital elements onto the real world you see through the camera. This can enhance experiences in gaming, education, and even product visualisation.

Statement 4 is correct. VR creates a closed world, shutting out the physical environment and transporting the user entirely into a simulated one. This provides a highly immersive experience, often used for gaming, entertainment, and even training simulations.

Statement 1 is incorrect: While H-CNG significantly reduces carbon monoxide (CO) emissions, it does not eliminate them entirely. Burning hydrogen produces only water vapor, but since H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, some CO is still emitted though at lower levels than conventional CNG.

Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG is cleaner than CNG, leading to a reduction in carbon dioxide (CO₂) and hydrocarbon (HC) emissions. The reduction depends on the specific blend ratio and engine efficiency.

Statement 3 is correct: As per Indian government guidelines, up to 18% hydrogen (by volume) can be blended with CNG for use in buses and other vehicles. This blend improves combustion efficiency and reduces emissions.

Statement 4 is incorrect: H-CNG is not necessarily cheaper than CNG. The cost is influenced by Hydrogen production methods, Infrastructure development and Blending technology.

Therefore, option (B) statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Indian Patents Act (specifically Section 3(j)), biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not eligible for patents. This means creating a seed through a biological process cannot be patented.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established in India in 2003. It deals with appeals against decisions of the patent office and trademark registry.

Statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties themselves are not patentable in India. However, the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act (PPVFR Act) provides a system for protecting the rights of plant breeders by granting them exclusive rights to sell propagating material of new varieties.

_Note: the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 abolished various Tribunals including India's Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) and assigned their functions to the country's Commercial Courts and High Courts. However, UPSC asked this question in 2019 when an Appellate Board existed for intellectual property. Therefore correct answer is 3 only._

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils are a major source of nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions, primarily nitrous oxide (NO). This occurs during microbial processes in the soil, such as nitrification and denitrification.

Statement 2 is correct: Cattle release significant amounts of ammonia (NH) into the atmosphere through their urine and manure. This ammonia contributes to air pollution and can have negative environmental consequences.

Statement 3 is correct: The poultry industry releases various reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment, including ammonia, nitrous oxide, and nitrogen oxides. These emissions come from poultry manure and the use of nitrogen-based fertilizers in feed production.

* Cas9 protein is a revolutionary tool in the field of genetic engineering.


* Cas9 is an RNA-guided endonuclease, an enzyme. It acts like molecular scissors, capable of cutting DNA at specific locations within a cell's genome.

* Cas9 plays a crucial role in the CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technique, a powerful gene editing tool.

Statement 1 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi actively campaigned against the exploitative system of indentured labour, particularly during his time in South Africa. He recognized the hardships faced by indentured labourers and advocated for their rights.

Statement 2 is incorrect: During World War I, Gandhi supported the resolution for recruiting Indians for the British war effort. He believed this would demonstrate Indian loyalty to the Empire and potentially lead to greater political concessions after the war. This position was controversial within the Indian independence movement.

Statement 3 is correct: The Salt Satyagraha, led by Gandhi in 1930, involved the deliberate breaking of the British salt laws as a form of protest. In response to this non-violent civil disobedience movement, the British government declared the Indian National Congress illegal.

During the Gupta period, Vishti (forced labor) was considered a legitimate source of income for the State and a form of tax paid by the subjects in the form of labor. Historical evidence, such as the Junagadh inscription, indicates that Vishti was listed alongside other taxes like Bali and Bhaga, signifying its status as a state resource. It was prevalent in various regions, including Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar, contradicting the claim of its absence there. As it was a forced extraction of service, the laborers were not entitled to wages, and the obligation was not restricted to any specific family member like the eldest son.