2020

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the Indian agricultural credit system, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) contribute the largest share of short-term credit (roughly 75-80%), followed by Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), which are part of the cooperative credit structure, deliver significantly less credit compared to SCBs.

Statement 2 is correct. The Short-Term Cooperative Credit Structure (STCCS) in India typically follows a three-tier structure: 1. State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the apex/state level. 2. District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) at the district level. 3. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village/grassroots level. One of the primary functions of DCCBs is to mobilize resources and provide financial assistance/funds to the PACS within their jurisdiction.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Article 38(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order in which justice (social, economic, and political) forms the foundation of all institutions in the nation. This article emphasizes the importance of creating a system where justice is not just theoretical but embedded in every aspect of national life, influencing policies, governance, and society as a whole.

This provision is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines for the State to follow in establishing a just society.

Option B is the correct answer. A parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature. This responsibility means that the executive stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The moment the confidence is lost, it can be removed by Parliament by passing the no-confidence motion. This is the same feature which hampers the stability of the parliamentary system.


Options A and C are incorrect. Parliamentary system functions irrespective of whether all parties have representation. The government is not directly elected by the people but indirectly through their representative in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to remove the government through public vote is not available in the parliamentary system; this is a feature found in direct democracies.

Option D is incorrect. It goes against the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy which requires an executive responsible to the legislature.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

The Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties of the Constitution of India reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948).

1. Preamble: The Preamble outlines the philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution which is closely aligned with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

2. Directive Principles of State Policy: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government, aiming at creating a social order characterized by justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as outlined in the Declaration.

3. Fundamental Duties: The Fundamental Duties, though primarily obligations of the citizens, also reflect the individual's duty towards the community as emphasized in the Universal Declaration.

A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government. In a constitutional government, the powers of the government are restricted by a constitution. This document sets out the rules, principles, and framework within which the government must operate.

One of the core features of a constitutional government is the separation of powers. This principle divides the governmental authority into distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judiciary) to ensure that no single branch gains too much power.

It also guarantees fundamental rights, ensuring government actions remain within a legal framework.

Thus, a constitutional government operates under checks and balances, preventing absolute power and upholding the rule of law.

Article 50 of the Indian Constitution recommends State take efforts to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Statement 1 is correct: The MPLAD scheme lets MPs recommend works for local infrastructure and development needs in their constituency. The focus is on creating durable assets that benefit the community. Certain works are prohibited under MPLAD guidelines, which MPs must follow.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme requires MPs to allocate at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year to areas inhabited by the Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe population. If there are insufficient tribal populations in the MP's constituency, they can recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside their constituency, but within their State of election. If a state does not have Scheduled Tribe inhabited areas, this amount can be utilized in Scheduled Caste areas.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable, meaning that funds left in the district can be carried forward and utilized in subsequent years.

Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising the works under the scheme at the district level. They also inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year.

Based on the above information, the correct answer is (d).

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government. FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation.

The Act also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely 1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement 2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement 3. Macroeconomic Framework Policy Statement

The Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) of the Indian Constitution includes several provisions to ensure equal status and opportunities for all citizens. Article 17 specifically deals with the 'Abolition of Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. It is categorized under the Right to Equality because untouchability is a severe form of social discrimination that denies the basic principle of equality.

The Right to Equality comprises: * Article 14: Equality before law and equal protection of laws. * Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. * Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. * Article 17: Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice. * Article 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.

The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, the two houses of India's Parliament, have different powers and functions. While the Lok Sabha is the lower house with members directly elected by the people, the Rajya Sabha is the upper house with members indirectly elected by the states.

However, when it comes to amending the Constitution, both houses have equal powers. According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, any amendment to the Constitution requires the approval of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, for a constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be approved by both houses of Parliament, giving them equal powers in the process.

Statement 1 is Correct: According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution, the President has the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he/she thinks fit. Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Constitution does not mention three sessions of Parliament. It only mandates that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of one session and the date appointed for the first sitting of the next session. The practice of holding three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, and Winter) is a matter of convention and is not explicitly provided for in the Constitution. Statement 3 is Correct: Neither the Constitution of India nor the Rules of Procedure of Parliament prescribe a minimum number of days or sittings that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 164(4) of the Constitution, a minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. However, to be appointed a minister, the person must satisfy the qualifications for membership of the State Legislature as per Article 173. While the voting age is 18 years (Article 326), the minimum age to be a member of the Legislative Assembly is 25 years (and 30 for the Legislative Council). Therefore, a person who is merely "eligible to vote" but under 25 cannot be a minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. It is not a "permanent" disqualification.