UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

YEAR ASKED IN

2013

Practice UPSC 2013 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 101 Prelims MCQs and 93 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 101

  1. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:

    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:

    1. AIndians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
    2. BSimon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy in the Provinces
    3. CThere was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
    4. DThe Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed in 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act, 1919. The primary reason for the intense agitation and the slogan "Simon Go Back" was that the commission consisted of seven British Members of Parliament and had no Indian members. This exclusion was seen as a violation of the principle of self-determination and an insult to the self-respect of Indians, as an all-white body was tasked with deciding India's constitutional future.

  2. Consider the following statements 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be…

    Consider the following statements 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 Incorrect: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

    Statement 2 Incorrect: If an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States of India. This is a special provision to ensure a wider consensus for changes affecting the balance of power between the center and the states.

  3. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by –

    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by -

    1. ACarbon dioxide and nitrogen
    2. BCarbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
    3. COzone and carbon dioxide
    4. DNitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by primarily sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

    These pollutants are released into the atmosphere during the burning of fossil fuels, like coal, for electricity generation and from the exhaust of vehicles.

    When they reach the atmosphere, they react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid, which fall back to Earth as acid rain.

  4. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following…

    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this? 1. Dispersion 2. Refraction 3. Internal reflection Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Dispersion, Refraction and Internal reflection are all involved.

    | Phenomenon | Role in rainbow formation | |------------|---------------------------| | Refraction | Sunlight bends when it enters the raindrop and again when it exits, changing direction at each air–water boundary. | | Dispersion | Different wavelengths refract by slightly different angles, so the white light spreads into its constituent colours inside the drop. | | Internal reflection | Part of the dispersed light reflects from the rear surface of the droplet and heads back toward the observer, making the coloured arc visible. |

    Thus, the combined effect of Refraction → Dispersion → Internal Reflection → Refraction in order produces the familiar rainbow spectrum.

    ![Rainbow](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Rainbow_bde0b2e468.jpg)

  5. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests? 1. Presence of tall,…

    Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests? 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy 2. Coexistence of a large number of species 3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is correct: The trees are very tall (up to 50 m or more) and grow close together, competing for sunlight. Their crowns form a dense, multilayered canopy that blocks most sunlight from reaching the ground.

    Statement 2 is correct: Equatorial forests are the most biodiverse ecosystems on Earth. A single hectare can host hundreds of tree species, along with diverse fauna and microorganisms. This is due to stable climate and continuous growing season.

    Statement 3 is correct: Epiphytes (plants growing on other plants) such as orchids, mosses, and ferns thrive here. The humid atmosphere and dense canopy support their growth on trunks and branches.

    ![Equitorial Forest](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Tropical_Forest_a907501c65.jpg)

  6. Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy Hog 4. Spider…

    Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy Hog 4. Spider monkey Which of the above are found in India?

    1. A1, 2 and 3 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The species found in India among the given options are the Star Tortoise, Monitor Lizard, and Pygmy Hog.

    1. Star Tortoise (*Geochelone elegans*): It is found in the dry scrub forests of India (specifically in the south and west), Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. 2. Monitor Lizard: India is home to four species: the Bengal Monitor, the Water Monitor, the Desert Monitor, and the Yellow Monitor. All four species are protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 3. Pygmy Hog (*Porcula salvania*): It is the smallest and rarest wild pig in the world. Once found across the Himalayan foothills, it is now restricted to a few locations in India, primarily the Manas National Park in Assam. It is listed as Critically Endangered. 4. Spider Monkey: These are New World monkeys native to the tropical rainforests of Central and South America (from southern Mexico to Brazil). They are not found in the wild in India.

    Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

  7. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,…

    Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

    1. AState Forest Department
    2. BDistrict Collector/Deputy Commissioner
    3. CTahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
    4. DGram Sabha
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    According to Section 6(1) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both.

    Key points regarding the process: 1. Initiation: The Gram Sabha receives and processes claims for forest rights, prepares maps of the claimed areas, and passes a resolution. 2. Verification: This resolution is then screened by the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC). 3. Final Approval: The District Level Committee (DLC) is the final authority that approves the record of forest rights.

    While the Forest Department and Revenue officials are part of the committees at the sub-divisional and district levels, the power to initiate the process rests solely with the Gram Sabha.

  8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in…

    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2, 4 and 5 only
    3. C1, 3 and 5 only
    4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Arsenic, fluoride, and uranium are naturally occurring elements that can leach into groundwater in some regions of India.

    Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol not typically found as a pollutant in drinking water.

    Formaldehyde is a synthetic compound used in various industrial processes and is not a common contaminant in groundwater.

  9. Consider the following liquid assets: 1. Demand deposits with the banks 2. Time deposits…

    Consider the following liquid assets: 1. Demand deposits with the banks 2. Time deposits with the banks 3. Savings deposits with the banks 4. Currency The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is

    1. A1-4-3-2
    2. B4-3-2-1
    3. C2-3-1-4
    4. D4-1-3-2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Liquidity refers to how quickly and easily an asset can be converted into cash without loss of value. Let's analyze the given assets:

    1. Demand deposits with the banks – These can be withdrawn anytime on demand. Highly liquid.

    2. Time deposits with the banks – These cannot be withdrawn before maturity without penalty. Less liquid.

    3. Savings deposits with the banks – Can be withdrawn but often require notice; slightly less liquid than demand deposits.

    4. Currency – Cash is the most liquid form of asset.

    Arranging in decreasing order of liquidity: Currency > Demand deposits > Savings deposits > Time deposits

  10. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because –

    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because -

    1. Aexposure to sunlight is prevented
    2. Bconcentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
    3. Crate of respiration is decreased
    4. Dthere is an increase in humidity
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Fruits remain biologically active even after harvesting. They continue to undergo respiration, a metabolic process in which stored sugars are broken down to release energy. This respiration accelerates ripening and eventual spoilage.

    Cold storage works primarily by lowering temperature, which slows down enzymatic and metabolic processes inside the fruit. As temperature decreases, the rate of respiration decreases, delaying ripening and reducing microbial activity. This significantly increases the storage life of fruits.

  11. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because –

    Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because -

    1. AThe new soil does not contain favourable minerals
    2. BMost of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
    3. CMost of the root hairs are lost during the transplantation
    4. DLeaves get damaged during the transplantation
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Root hairs are extremely delicate, thin-walled outgrowths of the root epidermis that are primarily responsible for the absorption of water and minerals from the soil. During the process of transplantation, these fragile root hairs are often broken or lost. Without a sufficient number of root hairs, the seedling cannot absorb enough water to sustain itself in the new environment, which is why many transplanted seedlings fail to grow or survive.

  12. Consider the following pairs : 1. Limboo (Limbu): Sikkim 2. Karbi: Himachal Pradesh 3.…

    Consider the following pairs : 1. Limboo (Limbu): Sikkim 2. Karbi: Himachal Pradesh 3. Dongaria: Odisha 4. Bonda: Tamil Nadu Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Pair 1 is correctly matched: Limbu, the second most numerous tribe of the indigenous people called Kiranti, live in Nepal, on the easternmost section of the Himalayas east of the Arun River, and in northern India, mostly in the states of Sikkim, West Bengal, and Assam.

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Karbi people live in Assam and Meghalaya, not Himachal Pradesh.

    Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Dongaria Kondh tribe is indigenous to Odisha.

    Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The Bonda tribe resides in the Malkangiri district of Odisha, not Tamil Nadu.

  13. Consider the following crops 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat Which of…

    Consider the following crops 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat Which of these are Kharif crops?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1, 2 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is Correct: Cotton is a major Kharif crop that requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, and 210 frost-free days for its growth. Statement 2 is Correct: Groundnut is a Kharif crop and is one of the most important oilseeds produced during the monsoon season in India. Statement 3 is Correct: Rice is a staple Kharif crop that requires high temperature (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. Statement 4 is Incorrect: Wheat is a Rabi crop, which is sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in spring (April to June). It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.

  14. Consider the following statements: 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds. 2. Mica…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds. 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Natural gas in India is mostly found in Assam, Gujarat, and offshore basins (like Mumbai High). Gondwana beds are primarily coal-bearing formations, not major sources of natural gas.

    Statement 2 is correct: Koderma district in Jharkhand is known as the "mica capital of India".

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Dharwar rocks (in Karnataka and Maharashtra) are ancient metamorphic rocks, not petroleum-bearing formations.

    ![Natural Gas and Mica](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Natural_Gas_and_Mica_producing_states_bea6f10ecd.jpg)

  15. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?…

    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Correct: Desert plants (xerophytes) often have a thick, waxy cuticle on their leaves which acts as a physical barrier to minimize water loss through transpiration. Statement 2 is Correct: Many desert plants have very small leaves or shed them entirely to reduce the surface area exposed to the sun, thereby significantly inhibiting water loss. Statement 3 is Correct: In several arid species, leaves are modified into thorns or spines to minimize the surface area for transpiration and to protect the plant's stored water from herbivores.

  16. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? 1. They…

    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? 1. They are generally red in colour. 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C1 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct: Nearly all laterites are of rusty-red colouration, because of high iron oxide content.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: Laterite is rich in iron and aluminium but poor in nitrogen, potash, potassium, lime, and organic matter. It is commonly considered to have formed in hot and wet tropical areas.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Laterite soil is commonly found in areas of high altitude and heavy rainfall in Karnataka, TN, MP, Bihar, Orissa, Assam, and Meghalaya.

    ![Laterite soil in India](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Laterite_Soil_3edbd96164.jpg)

    Statement 4 is correct: Plants like Cashew grow well along with Tapioca in this type of soil.

  17. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as…

    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons? 1. Thermal difference between land and water 2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans 3. Presence of strong winds in the interior 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The correct answer is 1 only (Thermal difference between land and water).

    Statement 1 is correct: Land heats up and cools down much faster than water. This is because water has a higher specific heat capacity, meaning it takes more energy to heat it up and more energy to cool it down. Coastal areas, being influenced by large water bodies, experience a moderating effect on temperature fluctuations. The temperature changes are more gradual throughout the year.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: While altitude can affect temperature (higher altitude generally means cooler temperatures), this is not the primary reason for the difference between continental interiors and coasts. Both continents and oceans have variations in altitude.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Winds can play a role in influencing local temperatures, but their presence wouldn't explain the consistent pattern of higher annual ranges seen in continental interiors.

    Statement 4 is incorrect: Rainfall patterns can affect temperature to some extent, but coastal areas often receive more rainfall compared to continental interiors. This wouldn't explain the higher annual range observed inland.

  18. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

    1. APromoting skill development
    2. BIntroducing more social security schemes
    3. CReducing infant mortality rate
    4. DPrivatization of higher education
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that results from shifts in a population's age structure, specifically when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64 years) is larger than the non-working-age share. To reap the benefits of this transition, the expanding workforce must be productive and employable. Promoting skill development is essential to enhance the quality of human capital, ensuring that the labor force possesses the technical and vocational expertise required by the economy. Without adequate skills, a large working-age population can lead to unemployment and social instability rather than economic growth, a point emphasized in the 12th Five Year Plan and subsequent Economic Surveys.

  19. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

    1. AEngineering
    2. BPaper and pulp
    3. CTextiles
    4. DThermal power
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Thermal Power: ~88% of annual industrial water consumption Engineering: ~5% of annual industrial water consumption Paper & Pulp: ~2.3% of annual industrial water consumption Textiles: ~2% of annual industrial water consumption

    Industrial water consumption does not include water consumption of agriculture sector.

  20. Consider the following: 1. Electromagnetic radiation 2. Geothermal energy 3. Gravitational force 4. Plate…

    Consider the following: 1. Electromagnetic radiation 2. Geothermal energy 3. Gravitational force 4. Plate Movements 5. Rotation of the earth 6. Revolution of the earth Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

    1. A1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    2. B1, 3, 5 and 6 only
    3. C2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    4. D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    All of the listed phenomena (1-6) are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the Earth.

    Electromagnetic Radiation: Sunlight drives weather patterns, influences temperatures, and is crucial for plant life (photosynthesis).

    Geothermal Energy: Heat from the Earth's core fuels volcanic activity, drives plate tectonics, and shapes landforms.

    Gravitational Force: The Moon's gravity creates tides in our oceans, influencing coastlines and erosion.

    Plate Movements: The movement of tectonic plates causes mountain formation, earthquakes, and continental drift, constantly reshaping the Earth's surface.

    Rotation of the Earth: Earth's rotation creates day and night cycles, affecting weather patterns and influencing wind and ocean currents.

    Revolution of the Earth: Earth's revolution around the Sun causes seasons, impacting temperatures and weather patterns globally.

    These forces act together in a complex interplay, constantly sculpting and reshaping the Earth's surface over vast timescales.

  21. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

    1. A is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
    2. B is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
    3. Cexists as groundwater
    4. D exists as soil moisture
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The distribution of Earth's freshwater is a standard physical geography fact. The vast majority of freshwater is locked in ice caps, glaciers and permanent snow. Of the remaining unfrozen freshwater, the largest single reservoir is groundwater. Groundwater in aquifers, including shallow and deep systems, constitutes a much larger share than surface freshwater bodies like lakes and rivers, atmospheric moisture, or soil moisture. Thus option c, 'exists as groundwater', is the correct choice in conventional Earth water budget accounting.

    To elaborate on magnitudes: glaciers and ice hold about 68-69% of global freshwater. The next largest store is groundwater, which holds roughly 30% of the freshwater after excluding ice, vastly exceeding the volumes in lakes, rivers, and the atmosphere. Freshwater lakes and rivers together constitute a very small percentage of total freshwater, and atmospheric water as moisture and clouds is negligible by volume compared with groundwater. Soil moisture is also a minor reservoir relative to groundwater. These quantitative relations are frequently tested in prelims and must be recalled accurately.

    Why other options are wrong: option a, atmosphere, is attractive because we experience weather, but the atmosphere holds only a tiny fraction of freshwater at any time. Option b, lakes and rivers, contains important surface water but their combined volume is far smaller than groundwater. Option d, soil moisture, is critical for ecosystems and agriculture but is limited in total volume and residence time. Groundwater, in contrast, represents a large, relatively stable reservoir distributed in subsurface aquifers and thus dominates the non-ice freshwater stock.

    Exam technique note: remember the two largest stores by far are ice and glaciers first, then groundwater. Many students mistakenly emphasize lakes and rivers because they are visible, but in objective tests you must prefer groundwater when asked about the largest share of remaining unfrozen freshwater. Therefore option c is the correct and defensible answer with high confidence.

  22. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow…

    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is correct: The Narmada River flows through a linear rift valley, formed due to faulting and subsidence between two upland regions — the Vindhya Range (north) and the Satpura Range (south). This tectonic feature directs the river's flow toward the west.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The river indeed flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras, following the east–west oriented rift valley, But do not adequately explain why Narmada flows westward. Confinement could lead a river to flow in either direction.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: The general slope of the Peninsular Plateau is from west to east, which is why most peninsular rivers (like Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi) flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal. The Narmada's westward flow is an exception due to its rift valley structure, not due to land slope.

    ![Narmada River](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Narmada_River_8b95791afc.jpg)

  23. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due…

    Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to -

    1. AThe earth's rotation on its axis
    2. BRevolution of the earth on a tilted axis
    3. CLatitudinal position of the place
    4. DThe earth's revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The Earth's axis is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to its path around the Sun. This tilt means that different parts of the Earth receive direct sunlight for varying lengths of time throughout the year, leading to seasonal changes in day and night length.

    Hence, the correct answer is B.

  24. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, which of…

    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy. 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. 3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is correct. Bagasse: This fibrous residue left after sugarcane juice extraction is a valuable biomass fuel. It can be burned to generate electricity or heat, often powering the sugar mills themselves.

    Statement 2 is incorrect. Synthetic Fertilizers: Molasses don't directly contribute to the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. These fertilizers are typically manufactured using chemical processes involving elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

    Statement 3 is correct. Molasses: While molasses isn't directly used to produce synthetic fertilizers, it can be fermented to create ethanol, a biofuel. Ethanol can be used as a transportation fuel or blended with gasoline.

    Thus, statements 1 & 3 are correct while statement 2 is wrong.

  25. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of…

    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of an organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms? 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    - Fungi and Bacteria are decomposers. They breakdown organic matter into simple inorganic substances.

    - Virus represents dormant life. They are metabolically inactive as long as they are outside a host body. They are not decomposers. They invade host cells and use their nucleus (DNA machinery) to carry out their life processes.

  26. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the…

    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

    1. AFundamental Rights
    2. BFundamental Duties
    3. CDirective Principles of State Policy
    4. DFundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Article 37 The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

    As article 37 is part of DPSP, thus correct answer is 'C'.

  27. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

    1. AThe Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
    2. BThe Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
    3. CThe Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
    4. DThe President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Lok Sabha (Lower House) has the final say in the matter of Money Bill. Here's the process: - The Money Bill originates in the Lok Sabha. - The Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill. - The Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Bill and recommend amendments within 14 days.

    Two scenarios can occur 1. Rajya Sabha returns the Bill without recommendations or with recommendations accepted by the Lok Sabha. The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in its original or amended form. 2. Rajya Sabha recommends amendments that the Lok Sabha disagrees with (substantial amendments). The Lok Sabha can either accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha or reject them.

    If the Lok Sabha rejects the amendments, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha (original form). Essentially, the Rajya Sabha's power to amend a Money Bill is limited. While they can propose recommendations, the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether to accept or reject those changes.

  28. Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided…

    Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in:

    1. Athe Preamble and Fundamental Rights
    2. Bthe Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. Cthe Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. DNone of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The objective of 'Economic Justice' is explicitly enshrined in both the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

    1. The Preamble: It aims to secure to all citizens of India Justice in three distinct forms: Social, Economic, and Political. Economic justice implies the elimination of inequalities in wealth, income, and property.

    2. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV): - Article 38: Directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people, specifically mentioning the need to strive for a social order permeated by social, economic, and political justice. - Article 39: Further reinforces economic justice by directing the State to ensure that citizens have an adequate means of livelihood and that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth.

    Note on Fundamental Rights: While Fundamental Rights (Part III) ensure political and civil justice (like equality before the law), the specific mandate for 'Economic Justice' is primarily found in the Preamble and the DPSP.

  29. With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1.…

    With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. DNone of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Both statements are correct.

    The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) plays a crucial role in ensuring equal access to justice for all in India.

    Statement 1 is correct: NALSA's primary objective is to offer free and competent legal services to the underprivileged sections of society. This empowers them to navigate the legal system and fight for their rights, regardless of their financial background.

    Statement 2 is correct: NALSA functions as the apex body, setting guidelines and frameworks for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and initiatives throughout the country. These SLSAs operate at the state level to deliver legal services to the public.

  30. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya…

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 89 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and is not a member of the House. However, the Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members. Therefore, the Deputy Chairman is a member of the House, making the statement "both are not members" factually wrong.

    Statement 2 is correct: The Electoral College for the President (Article 54) includes only elected members of Parliament. However, the Electoral College for the Vice-President (Article 66) consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members.

Mains Q&A 93

  1. You are the Executive Director of an upcoming Infotech Company which is making a name for itself in the market. Mr. A, who is a star performer, is heading the marketing team. In a short period of one year, he has helped in doubling the revenues as well as creating a high brand equity for the Company so much so that you are thinking of promoting him. However, you have been receiving information from many corners about his attitude towards the female colleagues; particularly his habit of making loose comments on women. In addition, he regularly sends indecent SMS’s to all the team members including his female colleagues. One day, late in the evening, Mrs. X, who is one of Mr. A’s team members, comes to you visibly disturbed. She complains against the continued misconduct of Mr. A, who has been making undesirable advances towards her and has even tried to touch her inappropriately in his cabin. She tenders her resignation and leaves your office. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option you would adopt, giving reasons.

  2. As a senior officer in the Finance Ministry, you have access to some confidential and crucial information about policy decisions that the Government is about to announce. These decisions are likely to have far-reaching impact on the housing and construction industry. If the builders have access to this information beforehand, they can make huge profits. One of the builders has done a lot of quality work for the Government and is known to be close to your immediate superior, who asks you to disclose this information to the said builder. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons.

  3. You are heading a leading technical institute of the country. The institute is planning to convene an interview panel shortly under your chairmanship for selection of the post of professors. A few days before the interview, you get a call from the Personal Secretary (PS) of a senior government functionary seeking your intervention in favour of the selection of a close relative of the functionary for this post. The PS also informs you that he is aware of the long pending and urgent proposals of your institute for grant of funds for modernization, which are awaiting the functionary’s approval. He assures you that he would get these proposals cleared. (a) What are the options available to you? (b) Evaluate each of these options and choose the option which you would adopt, giving reasons.

  4. Sivakasi in Tamil Nadu is known for its manufacturing clusters on firecrackers and matches. The local economy of the area is largely dependent on firecrackers industry. It has led to tangible economic development and improved standard of living in the area. So far as child labour norms for hazardous industries like firecrackers industry are concerned, International Labour Organization (ILO) has set the minimum age as 18 years. In India, however, this age is 14 years. The units in industrial clusters of firecrackers can be classified into registered and non-registered entities. One typical unit is household-based work. Though the law is clear on the use of child labour employment norms in registered/non-registered units, it does not include household-based works. Household-based work means children working under the supervision of their parents/relatives. To evade child labour norms, several units project themselves as household-based works but employ children from outside. Needless to say that employing children saves the costs for these units leading to higher profits to the owners. On your visit to one of the units at Sivakasi, the owner takes you around the unit which has about 10-15 children below 14 years of age. The owner tells you that in his household-based unit, the children are all his relatives. You notice that several children smirk, when the owner tells you this. On deeper enquiry, you figure out that neither the owner nor the children are able to satisfactorily establish their relationship with each other. (a) Bring out and discuss the ethical issues involved in the above case. (b) What would be your reaction after your above visit?

  5. You are working as an Executive Engineer in the construction cell of a Municipal Corporation and are presently in-charge of the construction of a flyover. There are two Junior Engineers under you who have the responsibility of day-to-day inspection of the site and are reporting to you, while you are finally reporting to the Chief Engineer who heads the cell. While the construction is heading towards completion, the Junior Engineers have been regularly reporting that all construction is taking place as per design specifications. However, in one of your surprise inspections, you have noticed some serious deviations and lacunae which, in your opinion, are likely to affect the safety of the flyover. Rectification of these lacunae at this stage would require a substantial amount of demolition and rework which will cause a tangible loss to the contractor and will also delay completion. There is a lot of public pressure on the Corporation to get this construction completed because of heavy traffic congestion in the area. When you brought this matter to the notice of the Chief Engineer, he advised you that in his opinion it is not a very serious lapse and may be ignored. He advised for further expediting the project for completion in time. However, you are convinced that this was a serious matter which might affect public safety and should not be left unaddressed. What will you do in such a situation? Some of the options are given below. Evaluate the merits and demerits of each of these options and finally suggest what course of action you would like to take, giving reasons: (i) Follow the advice of the Chief Engineer and go ahead. (ii) Make an exhaustive report of the situation bringing out all facts and analysis along with your own viewpoints stated clearly and seek for written orders from the Chief Engineer. (iii) Call for explanation from the Junior Engineers and issue orders to the contractor for necessary correction within targeted time. (iv) Highlight the issue so that it reaches superiors above the Chief Engineer. (v) Considering the rigid attitude of the Chief Engineer, seek transfer from the project or report sick.

  6. A Public Information Officer has received an application under RTI Act. Having gathered the information, the PIO discovers that the information pertains to some of the decisions taken by him, which were found to be not altogether right. There were other employees also who were party to these decisions. Disclosure of the information is likely to lead to disciplinary action with possibility of punishment against him as well as some of his colleagues. Non-disclosure or part disclosure or camouflaged disclosure of information will result into lesser punishment or no punishment. The PIO is otherwise an honest and conscientious person but this particular decision, on which the RTI application has been filed, turned out to be wrong. He comes to you for advice. The following are some suggested options. Please evaluate the merits and demerits of each of the options: (i) The PIO could refer the matter to his superior officer and seek his advice and act strictly in accordance with the advice, even though he is not completely in agreement with the advice of the superior. (ii) The PIO could proceed on leave and leave the matter to be dealt by his successor in office or request for transfer of the application to another PIO. (iii) The PIO could weigh the consequences of disclosing the information truthfully, including the effect on his career, and reply in a manner that would not place him or his career in jeopardy, but at the same time a little compromise can be made on the contents of the information. (iv) The PIO could consult his other colleagues who are party to the decision and take action as per their advice. Also please indicate (without necessarily restricting to the above options) what you would like to advise, giving proper reasons.

  7. Given below are three quotations of great moral thinkers/philosophers. For each of these quotations, bring out what it means to you in the present context: (a) “There is enough on this earth for every one’s need but for no one’s greed.” — Mahatma Gandhi (b) “Nearly all men can withstand adversity, but if you want to test a man’s character, give him power.” — Abraham Lincoln (c) “I count him braver who overcomes his desires than him who overcomes his enemies.” — Aristotle