2019

Statement 1 is correct: The 'Amil' was indeed the officer in charge of revenue collection in the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Iqta system was not an ancient indigenous institution of India but was rather an administrative system borrowed from the Persianate world. It was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate, primarily under the rule of the Ghurid dynasty, to organize and administer their territories.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The office of 'Mir Bakshi' was not established during the reign of the Khalji Sultans. It was introduced later during the Mughal period, under the reign of Emperor Akbar, as a military office responsible for managing the imperial army and its finances.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) in E-waste Management Rules, 2011 Makes producers of electrical and electronic equipment (EEE) responsible for the collection and channelization of e-waste after its end-of-life. This promotes responsible production and encourages proper e-waste disposal.

EPR in Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 Extends the EPR principle to plastic waste. Producers, importers, and brand owners are accountable for managing plastic packaging waste after consumption.

Option A is correct. Both Hepatitis B virus and HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) can be transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, sexual contact, and from mother to child during childbirth.

Option B is incorrect. Unlike Hepatitis C, there is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is highly effective in preventing Hepatitis B virus infection.

Option C is correct. According to global health statistics, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses combined is indeed several times more than those infected with HIV.

Option D is correct. Many individuals infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses may not show any symptoms for years or even decades. This is known as chronic hepatitis, and it can lead to severe liver damage if left untreated.


The external debt of India is the total debt the country owes to foreign creditors. The debtors can be the Union government, state governments, corporations, or citizens of India. The debt includes money owed to private commercial banks, foreign governments, or international financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World Bank.

- Commercial borrowings continued to be the largest component of external debt with a share of 37.4 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (24.1 per cent) and short-term trade credit (19.9 per cent).

- Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-Government Debt - 416.7 (US$ billion), Government Debt 104.5 (US$ billion).

- Statement 2 is also incorrect: US dollar-denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India's external debt with a share of 45.9 per cent at the end of December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (24.8 per cent), SDR (5.1 per cent), yen (4.9 per cent) and euro (3.1 per cent).

Statement 1 is correct - Area under rice cultivation is highest among the Kharif crops; for example, it was 441.10 (Lakh Hectare) in 2014-15, 433.88 (Lakh Hectare) in 2015-16, etc.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Area under the cultivation of jowar is less than that of oilseeds.

Statement 3 is correct - Area of cotton cultivation is more than double that of sugarcane.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Area under sugarcane cultivation is fluctuating; it has not steadily decreased.


* Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are both thermochemical processes used to convert waste materials (organic or inorganic) into usable products.

* Pyrolysis: This process involves heating organic materials (like plastic, and biomass) in an oxygen-deficient environment, leading to decomposition into various products like syngas (a mixture of gases), bio-oil, and char.

* Plasma gasification: This technology uses high-temperature plasma to break down waste materials into syngas rich in hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

* Both processes offer a potential solution for waste management and energy generation. They can convert various waste streams into usable fuels or feedstock for further processing.

Pair 1 is correct: Pandharpur is a well-known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Solapur district, Maharashtra, India.

Pair 2 is correct: Tiruchirapalli is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in east-central Karnataka, India. It is located near the Tungabhadra River.

Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.

The phrase "New World crops" is usually used to describe crops, food and otherwise, that were native to the New World (mostly the Americas) before 1492 CE and not found anywhere else at that time. Many of these crops are now grown around the world and have often become an integral part of the cuisine of various cultures in the Old World.

New World Food - corn, potato, tomato, bell pepper, chili pepper, vanilla, tobacco, Cocoa, rubber tree, beans, pumpkin, cassava root, avocado, peanut, pecans, cashews, pineapple, blueberries, sunflower, petunia, black-eyed susan, dahlia, marigold, quinine, wild rice, gourds, and squash.

The burning of crop or biomass residue releases various pollutants into the atmosphere, contributing to air pollution and climate change.

Carbon Monoxide (CO): Incomplete combustion of organic matter produces carbon monoxide, a colorless and toxic gas that affects air quality and human health.

Methane (CH₄): Biomass burning can also release methane, a potent greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming.

Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂): If the biomass contains sulfur compounds, its combustion releases sulfur dioxide, which can cause respiratory problems and contribute to acid rain.

Ozone (O₃) Formation: Ozone is not directly emitted from biomass burning. However, it forms secondarily in the atmosphere when pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight.

Therefore, option (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is correct.

* The summer solstice is the day with the longest period of daylight and the shortest night of the year. It occurs when one of the Earth's poles has its maximum tilt toward the Sun.


* On 21st June, the summer solstice occurs in the Northern Hemisphere. This is the longest day of the year for that hemisphere.

* The Arctic Circle, which is in the Northern Hemisphere, experiences continuous daylight throughout this day. This is because the tilt of the Earth's axis is such that the North Pole is facing towards the Sun.

* Therefore, the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle on this day.

* The Adriatic Sea is a body of water separating the Italian Peninsula from the Balkan peninsula, and Albania is one of the countries on its coast.


* Croatia does not border the Black Sea. The countries bordering the Black Sea are Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine.


* Kazakhstan is one of the five countries (along with Russia, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Azerbaijan) that border the Caspian Sea.


* Morocco is one of the countries that border the Mediterranean Sea.


* Syria does not border the Red Sea. The countries bordering the Red Sea are Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.


So, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

Statement 1 is correct: As per Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957, sand is classified as a 'minor mineral' along with other minerals such as gravel, clay, marble, and limestone.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The power to make rules regarding the grant of minor minerals lies with State Governments, not the Central Government. Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, State governments can frame rules related to the extraction, leasing, and transportation of minor minerals. However, the central government regulates major minerals like coal, iron ore, and bauxite.

Statement 3 is correct: The MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules to regulate the grant of mining leases and other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals, which includes the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

* The country's vegetable oil imports for the first six months of the oil year during November 2018 to April 2019 stood at 75,41,689 tonne, up about 3% from 73,18,295 tonne reported in the same period last year.

* Vegetable oils account for the highest import in terms of value in the last five years. India relies on imports for 70 percent of its edible oil consumption.

The correct answer is (C) procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

Here's a breakdown of the economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India (FCI):

Minimum Support Price (MSP) and bonus (if any): This is the price paid by the FCI to farmers to procure food grains at a pre-determined level. It serves as a safety net for farmers and ensures some income stability.

Procurement incidentals: These are the additional costs incurred by the FCI during the procurement process. They include expenses like - Commission to agents or societies involved in procurement - Bagging materials - Labor charges for procurement activities - Transportation from collection centers to storage depots

Distribution cost: This refers to the expenses incurred by the FCI to distribute the procured food grains. It includes - Transportation costs from storage depots to fair price shops or other distribution channels - Handling and storage charges at fair price shops - Losses during storage and transportation


The Chairman of public sector banks in India are selected by the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).

The Banks Board Bureau is an autonomous body responsible for selecting and appointing the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions. It was established based on the recommendations of the Nayak Committee Report (2014).

The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index measured business regulations through 10 specific sub-indices: (1) Starting a business, (2) Dealing with construction permits, (3) Getting electricity, (4) Registering property, (5) Getting credit, (6) Protecting minority investors, (7) Paying taxes, (8) Trading across borders, (9) Enforcing contracts, and (10) Resolving insolvency. While maintenance of law and order is a fundamental requirement for economic stability, it was not one of the quantitative indicators used by the World Bank for this index. Options B, C, and D are all official sub-indices used in the ranking methodology.

The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) was a key component of Project Sashakt, launched based on the recommendations of the Sunil Mehta Committee to fast-track the resolution of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking system. It specifically targets stressed assets of ₹50 crore or more held under consortium lending. The agreement mechanism stipulates that if 66% of the lenders (by value) agree to a resolution plan, it becomes binding on all other lenders in the consortium. This prevents individual dissenting banks from stalling the recovery process, ensuring a more efficient turnaround for bad loans.

Statement 1 is correct. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. (Actually, as of April 2024, it has 109 members).

Statement 2 is incorrect. India is not the largest shareholder in AIIB. China is the largest shareholder.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While the focus is on Asia, several non-Asian countries are members, including some European and South American nations.


Statement 1 is Correct: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), based on the Mahalanobis Model, shifted the focus of Indian planning toward rapid industrialization. It placed a determined thrust on the development of basic and heavy capital goods industries to build a strong industrial base.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) adopted the objective of "growth with stability" and the "progressive achievement of self-reliance." It specifically aimed at correcting the concentration of wealth and economic power through measures like the nationalization of 14 major commercial banks (1969) and the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The financial sector was not included as an integral part of the planning process during the Fifth Five-Year Plan. It was only from the Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002) onwards that the financial sector was treated as an integral part of the plan to ensure efficient resource allocation.

Statement 1 is correct: Foreign currency earnings - The IT sector generates foreign exchange through exports of services. This increases the supply of foreign currency reserves, making it easier to defend the rupee's value in the foreign exchange market during times of stress.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While government spending can stimulate economic growth, it can also lead to a higher budget deficit. If the deficit is financed by excessive borrowing, it can put pressure on the currency if investors lose confidence in the government's ability to repay its debts.

Statement 3 is correct: Remittances from abroad - When Indians working abroad send money back home, it adds to the inflow of foreign currency. This strengthens the country's foreign exchange reserves and provides a buffer against external shocks.

Therefore, the correct code is 1 and 3 only.

Participatory Note (P-Note): This is a financial instrument issued by registered foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) to overseas investors. It allows overseas investors to participate in the Indian stock market indirectly without directly registering with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The FPI holds the underlying Indian securities, and the P-Note represents ownership for the overseas investor.

The other options are not used for this purpose:

Certificate of Deposit (CD): Issued by banks to raise short-term funds, not related to stock markets.

Commercial Paper (CP): Short-term debt instrument issued by companies, not related to foreign investment in stocks.

Promissory Note: A written promise to repay a debt, not used in this context of stock market participation.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Saint Nimbarka lived in the 13th or 14th century, while Akbar's reign was from 1556 to 1605.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Saint Kabir lived in the 15th century, predating Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi who belonged to the 16th-17th century.

Assets represent the resources a bank owns. For a commercial bank, these resources include:

- Advances (loans): Money lent to businesses, individuals, and other borrowers. - Investments Securities like government bonds, treasury bills, or shares in other companies. - Money at call and short notice: Funds are lent to other banks for a very short period, usually overnight. - Deposits are liabilities for a bank. They represent the money that customers entrust to the bank, which the bank is obligated to repay.

Money multiplier: It refers to the extent to which commercial banks can create new money based on deposits. It's calculated as the reciprocal of the reserve ratio (required reserves divided by total deposits).

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): These are regulatory tools used by the central bank to control the money supply.

Higher CRR and SLR: Banks are required to hold a larger portion of deposits as reserves with the central bank. This reduces the amount of money available for lending, thus decreasing the money multiplier.

Lower CRR and SLR: Banks can lend out a larger portion of deposits, increasing the money multiplier.

Banking habit: When people deposit more money in banks, it increases the pool of funds available for lending. This allows banks to create more new money through the lending process, leading to a higher money multiplier.

Population growth: While population growth can lead to higher demand for money, it doesn't directly affect the money multiplier mechanism itself.

To stop the slide of the Rupee (depreciation), the RBI/Government needs to increase the inflow of foreign currency (USD) or decrease the outflow.

Option (a), (b), and (c) are likely measures: They either increase the supply of dollars in the Indian market or reduce the demand for dollars, which helps stabilize the Rupee.

Option (d) is NOT a likely measure: An expansionary monetary policy usually involves lowering interest rates. When interest rates fall, the "carry trade" becomes less attractive to foreign investors, leading to capital flight. This increases the supply of Rupee in the market and decreases its value further. To stop a slide, the RBI typically follows a contractionary (dear money) policy to attract capital and curb inflation.

* The poverty line is determined by the cost of a basket of essential goods and services needed for a person to meet their basic needs.

* If the price of these essentials varies significantly between states, the poverty line needs to be adjusted to reflect the different costs of living.

* So, even if poverty rates might be similar, states with higher prices for essential goods will have a higher official poverty line.

Therefore, the correct answer is B) Price levels vary from State to State.

Statement 1 is correct: Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not the sixth-largest economy in the world in terms of PPP dollars. It is currently the third largest economy in terms of PPP dollars, after China and the United States.

The primary objective of land reforms in independent India was to achieve social justice and 'equity' by redistributing land from large landowners to the landless and marginal farmers, thereby reducing the concentration of land ownership.

- Option B is correct: The policy priority was to ensure that those who actually tilled the soil had ownership rights, aiming to provide agricultural land to the landless to reduce rural poverty and inequality. - Option A is incorrect: During the first phase of land reforms (1950s and 60s), ceiling laws were generally applied to individual holdings. It was only after the 1972 national guidelines that the basis for land ceilings shifted to family units. - Option D is incorrect: Land ceiling laws were not absolute and provided numerous exemptions. These typically included land used for plantations (tea, coffee, rubber), orchards, sugarcane farms, and land held by religious, educational, or charitable trusts. - Option C is incorrect: Land reforms were intended to improve productivity and equity; they did not specifically aim for, nor result in, cash crops becoming the predominant form of cultivation across the country.

Option A is incorrect: Proportion of literates in the population While education is important, it's an individual skill, not a measure of social interaction or trust. Option B is incorrect: Stock of buildings This falls under physical capital, which refers to tangible assets like buildings and infrastructure. Option C is incorrect: Size of population in the working age group This is a demographic factor and doesn't tell us anything about social connections or trust. Option D is correct: Social capital refers to the intangible assets of a community or society. It's not about physical resources or demographics, but rather the quality of relationships and connections between people. Option D, the level of mutual trust and harmony, directly reflects this concept.

Article 21: This article states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of personal liberty to include various fundamental rights, including the right to marry a person of one's choice.

Shamima Begum vs. State of Assam (2018): The court ruled that a woman has the right to marry a person of her choice, reinforcing that personal decisions related to marriage fall under individual autonomy and personal liberty as guaranteed by Article 21.

Hadiya's case (Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M): The Supreme Court upheld the right to marry as a fundamental right under Article 21. It ruled that an adult woman is free to make decisions regarding her marriage, rejecting attempts to interfere in personal choices. The court emphasized that state or societal disapproval cannot restrict an individual's right to marry.