UPSC CSE 2026 Essay Paper Discussion

YEAR ASKED IN

2023

Practice UPSC 2023 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 80 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of…

    "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

    1. ABuddhism
    2. BJainism
    3. CShaivism
    4. DVaishnavism
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The statement reflects the fundamental Jain doctrine that the entire cosmos is alive. According to Jain philosophy, souls (Jivas) are not restricted to humans, animals, and plants but are also present in elements like rocks (earth), running water, air, and fire. These are categorized as Sthavara Jivas (immobile living beings) or Ekendriya (one-sensed beings). This ontological belief is the foundation for the rigorous practice of Ahimsa (non-violence) in Jainism, as harming any natural element is considered harming a living soul. Note that Anekantavada refers to the doctrine of non-absolutism or the many-sidedness of truth, which is an epistemological concept distinct from the belief in the omnipresence of souls.

  2. Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury…

    Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities, such as stocks and bonds, are traded. They provide a platform for raising capital for businesses and governments.

    On the other hand, Money markets are financial markets where short-term securities such as T-Bill, C-Paper, Cash Management Bills, Ways and Means advances, etc are traded.

    * Statement 1 is correct- Government bonds are long-term debt securities issued by governments to finance their activities. The government bond market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of long-term debt securities.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect- The call money market is a short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for very short durations, usually overnight. It deals with short-term funds, and its transactions are not classified as part of the capital market.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by governments to finance their short-term cash flow requirements. The treasury bill market, similar to the call money market, deals with short-term instruments and is not considered part of the capital market.

    * Statement 4 is correct- The stock market, also known as the equity market or share market, is where shares or stocks of publicly listed companies are bought and sold. The stock market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of ownership interests (equity securities) in companies.

  3. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some…

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statements-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services.

    * Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

    * Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.

  4. Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

    Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?

    1. ACollecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
    2. BUnderstanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
    3. CUsing air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
    4. DSending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Aerial metagenomics refers to the scientific technique of collecting and analyzing DNA samples directly from the air to identify the biological community present in a habitat.

    * Metagenomics: This is the study of genetic material (genomes) recovered directly from environmental samples (like soil, water, or air). It bypasses the need for isolating and culturing individual species in a lab. * Environmental DNA (e-DNA): Organisms shed DNA into their surroundings through various means such as breath, skin, fur, or waste. This genetic material found in the environment is known as e-DNA. * Aerial Sampling: In 'Aerial' metagenomics, researchers use specialized filters or vacuum systems to capture this e-DNA from the air. This allows for the simultaneous monitoring of multiple species (animals, plants, fungi, and microbes) in a specific area at one go, providing a non-invasive way to track biodiversity.

    Hence, option A is correct.

  5. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : 1. Home Guards are…

    With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How Many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories (not the central Government). They are recruited from all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for the betterment of the community.

    * Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic, etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

    * Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.), and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.

    Therefore, only two statements are correct.

  6. Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5.…

    Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DOnly five
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Bulgaria does not share a land border with Ukraine. It is located to the south of Romania and is separated from Ukraine by Romania.

    * The Czech Republic is located to the west of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

    * Hungary shares a land border with Ukraine to the west.

    * Latvia is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

    * Lithuania is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

    * Romania shares a land border with Ukraine to the south.

    * Only two of the above-mentioned countries (Hungary and Romania) share a land border with Ukraine.

    ![Ukraine](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Ukraine_f01d3662ab.jpg)

  7. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is safe…

    Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM). It is a central intervention implemented by states, not an intervention of the State Health Departments.

    Statement 2 is correct: The primary objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by encouraging safe, institutional births.

    Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides a cash incentive to mothers to promote institutional delivery, particularly among those from BPL, SC, and ST households.

    Statement 4 is incorrect: While care for sick infants is a priority under the National Health Mission, the provision of free facilities for sick infants up to one year of age is specifically a feature of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) launched in 2011. JSY, launched in 2005, is primarily a conditional cash transfer scheme for delivery.

  8. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is…

    With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 Only
    2. B2 Only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is Correct: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) allow for direct peer-to-peer cross-border transactions. By using a common platform or bilateral arrangements between central banks, payments can be settled directly without relying on the US dollar as a vehicle currency or the SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) messaging system.

    Statement 2 is Correct: CBDCs are considered 'programmable money.' Central banks can embed smart contracts into the currency, allowing it to be distributed with specific conditions, such as an expiration date (time-frame) for spending or restricting its use to specific purposes like fuel or food subsidies.

  9. Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4.…

    Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DAll five
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) recommended the following criteria and weights for horizontal tax devolution among states for the 2021-26 period:

    1. Income Distance (45%): The distance of a state's income from the state with the highest income. 2. Population (15%): Based on the 2011 Census data. 3. Area (15%): To account for the higher cost of providing services in larger geographical areas. 4. Forest and Ecology (10%): Calculated based on the share of the dense forest of each state in the total dense forest of all states. 5. Demographic Performance (12.5%): This criterion was introduced to reward states that have made progress in lowering their fertility rates (using 1971 population data as a benchmark). 6. Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%): To reward states with higher tax collection efficiency.

    Analysis of the given list: - Demographic performance: Included (Criterion 5) - Forest and ecology: Included (Criterion 4) - Tax and fiscal efforts: Included (Criterion 6) - Governance reforms: Not included as a criterion for horizontal devolution. - Stable government: Not included as a criterion for horizontal devolution.

    Apart from population, area, and income distance, the Commission used three criteria from the list provided (Demographic performance, Forest and ecology, and Tax and fiscal efforts).

  10. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making…

    Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement 1 is Incorrect: Most common Indian squirrels, such as the Indian Palm Squirrel (Funambulus species) and the Malabar Giant Squirrel (Ratufa indica), are arboreal. They build nests, known as dreys, in tree branches, hollows, or crevices using twigs and leaves, rather than making burrows in the ground.

    Statement 2 is Correct: Many squirrel species exhibit "scatter hoarding" behavior. They store food materials like nuts and seeds by burying them in various shallow locations in the ground to retrieve them during times of food scarcity. This behavior is a key ecological process for seed dispersal.

    Statement 3 is Correct: Squirrels are opportunistic omnivores. While their diet primarily consists of seeds, nuts, fruits, and fungi, they also consume insects, caterpillars, bird eggs, and occasionally small vertebrates like lizards or young birds.

  11. Consider the following pairs : Regions : often Reason for being in news 1.…

    Consider the following pairs : Regions : often Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly Two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    None of the pairs (1, 2, or 3) are correctly matched. Let's break it down:

    1. North Kivu and Ituri: This region in the Democratic Republic of Congo experiences conflict, but is not related to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan.

    2. Nagorno-Karabakh: This enclave is disputed between Armenia and Azerbaijan, but the insurgency is happening in Mozambique.

    3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: These are currently under heavy fighting in the Russia-Ukraine war, not a dispute between Israel and Lebanon.

    ![Places In News](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Places_in_News_Tigray_aac76c124e.png)

  12. Consider the following statements : Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom…

    Consider the following statements : Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Statement 1 is correct The National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7th August to honour the handloom weavers in the country and also highlight India's handloom industry. The first National Handloom Day was held on 7th August 2015.

    * Statement 2 is correct August 7 was chosen as the National Handloom Day to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on August 7 in 1905 in Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal by the British Government. The Swadeshi movement had aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes.

    Hence Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

  13. Consider the following pairs: Port : Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port : First…

    Consider the following pairs: Port : Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one pair
    2. BOnly two pairs
    3. CAll three pairs
    4. DNone of the pairs
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Pair 1 is correct: Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium-sized ports.

    * Pair 2 is correct: Mundra Port is the largest private port in India. The port of Mundra is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, in the state of Gujarat. Mundra is a major hub for containers and bulk cargo. It is run by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and began operations in 2001. Mundra Airport is undergoing major developments to convert it into an international airport for air cargo.

    * Pair 3 is incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust Nhava Sheva (JNPT) is the largest container port in India and one of the most essential subcontinent harbours on the Western coast.

    ![ports](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Major_ports_of_India_bea4c0e1ca.png)

  14. Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills Constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above the correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: Amarkantak is a pilgrim town in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh. Amarkantak Hills is the meeting point of the Vindhya, Satpura, and Maikal Ranges. It is also the origin of the Narmada, Son, and Johilla Rivers.

    * Statement 2 is incorrect: The Billigirirangan Hills, also known as BR Hills, are not a part of the Satpura range. It is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District). The area is called Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary or simply BRT Wildlife Sanctuary.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Seshachalam Hills, also known as Tirumala Hills, are not a part of the Western Ghats. Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh. The Seshachalam hill ranges are predominantly present in Tirupati district of the Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh.

  15. Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central…

    Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

    * Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) mentions that individuals detained under preventive detention laws are not initially entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner until the grounds of detention are disclosed to them. Although the constitution allows for exceptions in preventive detention cases, it does not prohibit state governments from providing legal counsel to the detained person. The state has the discretion to offer legal assistance if it wishes.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of POTA 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of at least Superintendent rank, overriding certain provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act.

  16. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work: Author 1.…

    With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work: Author 1. Devichandragupta: Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya: Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha: Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita: Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: Devichandraguptam is attributed to Vishakhadatta, a Sanskrit playwright. Bilhana was a poet who lived much later.

    * Statement 2 is correct: Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri, a Jain scholar and poet.

    * Statement 3 is incorrect: Milinda-Panha is a dialogue between Buddhist philosopher Nagasena and Indo-Greek King Milinda, focusing on Buddhist concepts like non-self (anatta) and nirvana. Nagasena belonged to the Hinayana tradition, while Nagarjuna, often confused with him, was a Mahayana scholar. For clarity in UPSC, refer to the Milinda-Panha philosopher as Nagasena.

    * Statement 4 is correct: Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri.

    Thus, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

  17. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Statement I is correct: Marsupials, which are a type of mammal characterised by the presence of a pouch (marsupium) for carrying their young, are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are primarily native to the Americas and Australia.

    * Statement II is incorrect: Marsupials can thrive in a variety of habitats, not just montane grasslands without predators. Many marsupial species are found in a wide range of ecosystems, including forests, savannas, and even urban areas, and can coexist with a variety of predators. Therefore, the correct answer is: Statement-I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.

  18. Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    All four statements are correct.

    * Medicinal mushrooms: Certain mushroom species have been used in traditional medicine for centuries and are still being studied for their potential health benefits. Examples include reishi mushrooms (Ganoderma lucidum) for immune system support and lion's mane mushrooms (Hericium erinaceus) for cognitive function.

    * Psychoactive mushrooms: Some mushrooms contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive compound that can induce hallucinations. These are commonly referred to as "magic mushrooms" or psilocybin mushrooms.

    * Insecticidal mushrooms: Some mushroom species produce natural compounds that can repel or even kill insects. These compounds act as a defence mechanism for the mushrooms against insect pests.

    * Bioluminescent mushrooms: A less common but fascinating property, bioluminescence, is found in some mushroom species. These mushrooms can produce and emit light, creating a glowing effect.

  19. Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 Only
    2. B2 Only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement 1 is Incorrect: Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered and follow a high, arcing trajectory, reaching supersonic speeds. In contrast, cruise missiles are jet-propelled, fly at lower altitudes, and can be subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic. The statement incorrectly swaps their propulsion characteristics.

    Statement 2 is Incorrect: Agni-V is a solid-fuelled Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Russia. The statement incorrectly swaps the types of these two missiles.

  20. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for…

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60% is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Assertion is Correct: India possesses domestic uranium deposits in regions such as the Singhbhum Shear Zone (Jharkhand) and the Cuddapah Basin (Andhra Pradesh). Despite these reserves, coal remains the primary source of electricity in India, accounting for over 70% of the total power generation.

    The Reason is Incorrect: Commercial electricity production does not require 60% enrichment. India's Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) use natural uranium (0.7% U-235) as fuel, while Light Water Reactors (LWRs) typically use Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) enriched to 3-5%. Uranium enriched to 60% or more is classified as Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU), which is used for research reactors or naval propulsion, not standard power plants.

    The Reason is factually incorrect and does not explain the Assertion.

  21. Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement 1 is Correct: Hyperthermophiles are microorganisms that can thrive in temperatures above 100°C (the boiling point of water). For example, *Pyrolobus fumarii* is an archaeon that lives in hydrothermal vents at temperatures up to 113°C.

    Statement 2 is Correct: Psychrophiles (or cryophiles) are extremophilic organisms capable of growth and reproduction in cold temperatures, often ranging from -20°C to +10°C, which is below the freezing point of water (0°C).

    Statement 3 is Correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that thrive in highly acidic environments. Extreme acidophiles, such as *Picrophilus oshimae*, can grow optimally at pH levels below 3, with some species surviving at pH levels near 0.

  22. Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as…

    Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * Both statements about the G-20 are correct

    * Statement 1 is correct: The G-20 originated as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to address global economic and financial issues. It has since expanded its focus to other areas of international cooperation.

    * Statement 2 is correct: India, as the chair of the G-20 in 2023, prioritised digital public infrastructure as one of its key areas of focus. This included discussions on promoting responsible use of artificial intelligence, bridging the digital divide, and fostering inclusive growth through digitalization.

  23. Consider the following pairs : Site : Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite…

    Consider the following pairs : Site : Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Besnagar (Bhilsa or Vidisha) in Madhya Pradesh, is not particularly well-known for a Shaivite cave shrine. Archaeological excavations revealed remains of Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu temples, but the site is more famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, an ancient Garuda pillar dedicated to Lord Vishnu.

    Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bhaja Caves (near Pune, Maharashtra) are a group of 22 rock-cut caves built during the 2nd century BC and are well known for their Buddhist architecture and sculptures.

    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sittanavasal (Pudukottai district, Tamil Nadu) is a village known for its Jain cave shrine, considered to be among the oldest Jain monuments in India.

  24. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community…

    Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    * Community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

    * Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Section 36 D of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA): The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. The committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary WildLife Warden on the community reserve.

    * Statement 2 is correct: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, thus hunting is prohibited in community reserves.

    * Statement 3 is correct: People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

    * Statement 4 is incorrect: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are also not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as shifting (jhum) cultivation.

  25. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide…

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Statement-I is correct: In the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic, global economies faced significant inflationary pressures due to supply chain disruptions and increased demand. To curb this inflation, many central banks, including the US Federal Reserve and the Reserve Bank of India, initiated a series of interest rate hikes to reduce liquidity in the market. * Statement-II is correct: A core principle of modern central banking is the belief that monetary policy tools—specifically adjusting interest rates—can influence economic activity and price levels. By raising rates, central banks aim to reduce spending and investment, thereby cooling down rising consumer prices. * Relationship: Statement-II explains the underlying logic behind the actions mentioned in Statement-I. Central banks carried out interest rate hikes *because* they operate under the assumption that such monetary policy measures are effective tools to counteract inflation. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

  26. Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’…

    Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

    1. AIt determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
    2. BIt enables the creation of political offices and a government.
    3. CIt defines and limits the powers of government.
    4. DIt secures social justice, social equality and social security.
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    * The Constitution contains the basic principles and laws of a nation that determine the powers and duties of the government. A constitution serves multiple purposes. It provides a legitimate legal and political basis for the Government to propose and enact laws, organising public service and settling disputes.

    * Although the Constitution determines the objectives (DPSP) for the making of necessary laws and aims to promote social, economic and political democracy, its chief purpose is to limit the power of government. In fact the Constitutional government is by definition limited government.

  27. Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River…

    Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement 1 is Correct: The Jhelum River, which originates from the Verinag Spring in the Kashmir Valley, flows through Srinagar and enters the Wular Lake before continuing its course towards Baramulla.

    Statement 2 is Incorrect: Kolleru Lake is located between the deltas of the Krishna and Godavari rivers in Andhra Pradesh. It is not directly fed by the main Krishna River; instead, it receives water from seasonal streams such as the Budameru and Tammileru, which are independent inflows and not distributaries of the Krishna or Godavari systems.

    Statement 3 is Incorrect: Kanwar Lake (also known as Kabartal) in Bihar is an oxbow lake formed by the meandering of the Burhi Gandak River. The Burhi Gandak is a separate river system that flows parallel to the main Gandak River.

  28. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How…

    Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * Lion-tailed Macaque: This is a diurnal animal, meaning it's active during the day.

    * Malabar Civet: This is a nocturnal animal, primarily active at night.

    * Sambar Deer: These are crepuscular animals, most active during dawn and dusk.

    Therefore, only one (1) of the fauna is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset (Malabar Civet).

    ![Lion Tailed Macaque](https://d39jluplm5thpx.cloudfront.net//Lion_Tailed_Maquac_de90cb451d.png)

  29. Consider the following statements : The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union…

    Consider the following statements : The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    * The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is an agreement, among all of the 27 member states of the European Union, to facilitate and maintain the economic stability of the EU countries.The European Commission and the Council of the European Union, monitors the fiscal condition of EU member countries from time to time to ensure their fiscal stability.

    * Statement 1 is correct: It is true that SGP aims to level the budget deficits of European countries. The corrective arm of the Stability and Growth Pact ensures that Member States adopt appropriate policy responses to correct excessive deficits (and/or debts) by implementing the Excessive Deficit Procedure (EDP). Also the SGP requires the EU Member States to lay out their fiscal plans for the next three years to limit their budget deficits.

    * Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: The SGP treaty does not require its members to share their infrastructure facilities nor their technologies with other countries. The purpose of the SGP was to ensure that fiscal discipline would be maintained and enforced in the European Union.

  30. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources…

    Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

    1. AAluminium
    2. BCopper
    3. CIron
    4. DTitanium
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    * Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2) are both minerals that contain high concentrations of titanium.

    * Titanium is a strong and lightweight metal known for its excellent corrosion resistance and high strength-to-weight ratio. It is widely used in various industries, including aerospace, automotive, medical, and construction.

    * In India, certain coastal tracts are known for their significant ilmenite and rutile deposits. Hence these minerals are also called beach sand minerals. These minerals are commonly found in beach sand deposits and are extracted through beach sand mining operations. The extracted ilmenite and rutile are processed to obtain titanium dioxide (TiO2), which is then further refined to produce metallic titanium.

    * Beach sand is rich in seven heavy minerals—ilmenite, leucoxene, rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite.

Mains Q&A 80

  1. Vinod is an honest and sincere IAS officer. Recently, he has taken over as Managing Director of the State Road Transport Corporation, his sixth transfer in the past three years. His peers acknowledge his vast knowledge, affability and uprightness. The Chairman of the State Road Transport Corporation is a powerful politician and is very close to the Chief Minister. Vinod comes to know about many alleged irregularities of the Corporation and the high-handedness of the Chairman in financial matters. A Board Member of the Corporation belonging to the Opposition Party meets Vinod and hands over a few documents along with a video recording in which the Chairman appears to be demanding bribe for placing a huge order for the supply of QMR tyres. Vinod recollects the Chairman expediting clearing of pending bills of QMR tyres. Vinod confronts the Board Member as to why he is shying away from exposing the Chairman with the so-called solid proof he has with him. The member informs him that the Chairman refuses to yield to his threats. He adds that Vinod may earn recognition and public support if he himself exposes the Chairman. Further, he tells Vinod that once his party comes to power, Vinod’s professional growth would be assured. Vinod is aware that he may be penalized if he exposes the Chairman and may further be transferred to a distant place. He knows that the Opposition Party stands a better chance of coming to power in the forthcoming elections. However, he also realizes that the Board Member is trying to use him for his own political gains. (a) As a conscientious civil servant, evaluate the options available to Vinod. (b) In the light of the above case, comment upon the ethical issues that may arise due to the politicization of bureaucracy.

  2. You hold a responsible position in a ministry in the government. One day in the morning you received a call from the school of your 11-year-old son that you are required to come and meet the Principal. You proceed to the school and find your son in the Principal’s office. The Principal informs you that your son had been found wandering aimlessly in the grounds during the time classes were in progress. The class teacher further informs you that your son has lately become a loner and did not respond to questions in the class, he had also been unable to perform well in the football trials held recently. You bring your son back from the school and in the evening, you along with your wife try to find out the reasons for your son’s changed behaviour. After repeated cajoling, your son shares that some children had been making fun of him in the class as well as in the WhatsApp group of the students by calling him stunted, duh and a frog. He tells you the names of a few children who are the main culprits but pleads with you to let the matter rest. After a few days, during a sporting event, where you and your wife have gone to watch your son play, one of your colleague’s son shows you a video in which students have caricatured your son. Further, he also points out to the perpetrators who were sitting in the stands. You purposefully walk past them with your son and go home. Next day, you find on social media, a video denigrating you, your son and even your wife, stating that you engaged in physical bullying of children on the sports field. The video became viral on social media. Your friends and colleagues began calling you to find out the details. One of your juniors advised you to make a counter video giving the background and explaining that nothing had happened on the field. You, in turn posted a video which you have captured during the sporting event, identifying the likely perpetrators who were responsible for your son’s predicament. You have also narrated what has actually happened in the field and made attempts to bring out the adverse effects of the misuse of social media. (a) Based on the above case study, discuss the ethical issues involved in the use of social media. (b) Discuss the pros and cons of using social media by you to put across the facts to counter the fake propaganda against your family.

  3. At 9 pm on Saturday evening, Rashika, a Joint Secretary, was still engrossed in her work in her office. Her husband, Vikram, is an executive in an MNC and frequently out of town in connection with his work. Their two children aged 5 and 3 are looked after by their domestic helper. At 9:30 pm her superior, Mr. Suresh calls her and asks her to prepare a detailed note on an important matter to be discussed in a meeting in the Ministry. She realises that she will have to work on Sunday to finish the additional task given by her superior. She reflects on how she had looked forward to this posting and had worked long hours for months to achieve it. She had kept the welfare of people uppermost in discharging her duties. She feels that she has not done enough justice to her family and she has not fulfilled her duties in discharging essential social obligations. Even as recently as last month she had to leave her sick child in the nanny’s care as she had to work in the office. Now, she feels that she must draw a line, beyond which her personal life should take precedence over her professional responsibilities. She thinks that there should be reasonable limits to the work ethics such as punctuality, hard work, dedication to duty and selfless service. (a) Discuss the ethical issues involved in this case. (b) Briefly describe at least four laws that have been enacted by the Government with respect to providing a healthy, safe and equitable working environment for women. (c) Imagine you are in a similar situation. What suggestions would you make to mitigate such working conditions?

  4. A landslide occurred in the middle of the night on 20th July, 2023 in a remote mountain hamlet, approximately 60 kilometres from Uttarkashi. The landslide was caused by torrential rains and has resulted in large-scale destruction of property and life. You, as District Magistrate of that area, have rushed to the spot with a team of doctors, NGOs, media and police along with numerous support staff to oversee the rescue operations. A man came running to you with a request for urgent medical help for his pregnant wife who is in labour and is losing blood. You directed your medical team to examine his wife. They return and convey to you that this woman needs blood transfusion immediately. Upon enquiry, you come to know that a few blood collection bags and blood group test kits are available in the ambulance accompanying your team. Few people of your team have already volunteered to donate blood. Being a physician who has graduated from AIIMS, you know that blood for transfusion needs to be procured only through a recognized blood bank. Your team members are divided on this issue; some favour transfusion, while some others oppose it. The doctors in the team are ready to facilitate the delivery provided they are not penalized for transfusion. Now you are in a dilemma. Your professional training emphasizes on prioritising service to humanity and saving lives of individuals. (a) What are the ethical issues involved in this case? (b) Evaluate the options available to you, being District Magistrate of the area.

  5. You are working as an executive in a nationalised bank for several years. One day one of your close colleagues tells you that her father is suffering from heart disease and needs surgery immediately to survive. She also tells you that she has no insurance and the operation will cost about Rs. 10 lakh. You are also aware of the fact that her husband is no more and that she is from a lower middle class family. You are empathetic about her situation. However, apart from expressing your sympathy, you do not have the resources to fund her. A few weeks later, you ask her about the well-being of her father and she informs you about his successful surgery and that he is recovering. She then confides in you that the bank manager was kind enough to facilitate the release of Rs. 10 lakh from a dormant account of someone to pay for the operation with a promise that it should be confidential and be repaid at the earliest. She has already started paying it back and will continue to do so until it is all returned. (a) What are the ethical issues involved? (b) Evaluate the behaviour of the bank manager from an ethical point of view. (c) How would you react to the situation?

  6. Given below are three quotations of great thinkers. What do each of these quotations convey to you in the present context? (a) “The simplest acts of kindness are by far more powerful than a thousand heads bowing in prayer.” – Mahatma Gandhi (b) “To awaken the people, it is the women who must be awakened. Once she is on the move, the family moves, the village moves, the nation moves.” – Jawaharlal Nehru (c) “Do not hate anybody, because that hatred that comes out from you must, in the long run, come back to you. If you love, that love will come back to you, completing the circle.” – Swami Vivekananda