2023

The statement reflects the fundamental Jain doctrine that the entire cosmos is alive. According to Jain philosophy, souls (Jivas) are not restricted to humans, animals, and plants but are also present in elements like rocks (earth), running water, air, and fire. These are categorized as Sthavara Jivas (immobile living beings) or Ekendriya (one-sensed beings). This ontological belief is the foundation for the rigorous practice of Ahimsa (non-violence) in Jainism, as harming any natural element is considered harming a living soul. Note that Anekantavada refers to the doctrine of non-absolutism or the many-sidedness of truth, which is an epistemological concept distinct from the belief in the omnipresence of souls.

Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities, such as stocks and bonds, are traded. They provide a platform for raising capital for businesses and governments.

On the other hand, Money markets are financial markets where short-term securities such as T-Bill, C-Paper, Cash Management Bills, Ways and Means advances, etc are traded.

* Statement 1 is correct- Government bonds are long-term debt securities issued by governments to finance their activities. The government bond market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of long-term debt securities.

* Statement 2 is incorrect- The call money market is a short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for very short durations, usually overnight. It deals with short-term funds, and its transactions are not classified as part of the capital market.

* Statement 3 is incorrect- Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by governments to finance their short-term cash flow requirements. The treasury bill market, similar to the call money market, deals with short-term instruments and is not considered part of the capital market.

* Statement 4 is correct- The stock market, also known as the equity market or share market, is where shares or stocks of publicly listed companies are bought and sold. The stock market is a part of the capital market as it involves the trading of ownership interests (equity securities) in companies.

* Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services.

* Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

* Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.

Aerial metagenomics refers to the scientific technique of collecting and analyzing DNA samples directly from the air to identify the biological community present in a habitat.

* Metagenomics: This is the study of genetic material (genomes) recovered directly from environmental samples (like soil, water, or air). It bypasses the need for isolating and culturing individual species in a lab. * Environmental DNA (e-DNA): Organisms shed DNA into their surroundings through various means such as breath, skin, fur, or waste. This genetic material found in the environment is known as e-DNA. * Aerial Sampling: In 'Aerial' metagenomics, researchers use specialized filters or vacuum systems to capture this e-DNA from the air. This allows for the simultaneous monitoring of multiple species (animals, plants, fungi, and microbes) in a specific area at one go, providing a non-invasive way to track biodiversity.

Hence, option A is correct.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories (not the central Government). They are recruited from all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for the betterment of the community.

* Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic, etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

* Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.), and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.

Therefore, only two statements are correct.

* Bulgaria does not share a land border with Ukraine. It is located to the south of Romania and is separated from Ukraine by Romania.

* The Czech Republic is located to the west of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

* Hungary shares a land border with Ukraine to the west.

* Latvia is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

* Lithuania is located to the north of Ukraine and does not share a land border with it.

* Romania shares a land border with Ukraine to the south.

* Only two of the above-mentioned countries (Hungary and Romania) share a land border with Ukraine.


Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM). It is a central intervention implemented by states, not an intervention of the State Health Departments.

Statement 2 is correct: The primary objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by encouraging safe, institutional births.

Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides a cash incentive to mothers to promote institutional delivery, particularly among those from BPL, SC, and ST households.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While care for sick infants is a priority under the National Health Mission, the provision of free facilities for sick infants up to one year of age is specifically a feature of the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) launched in 2011. JSY, launched in 2005, is primarily a conditional cash transfer scheme for delivery.

Statement 1 is Correct: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) allow for direct peer-to-peer cross-border transactions. By using a common platform or bilateral arrangements between central banks, payments can be settled directly without relying on the US dollar as a vehicle currency or the SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) messaging system.

Statement 2 is Correct: CBDCs are considered 'programmable money.' Central banks can embed smart contracts into the currency, allowing it to be distributed with specific conditions, such as an expiration date (time-frame) for spending or restricting its use to specific purposes like fuel or food subsidies.

The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) recommended the following criteria and weights for horizontal tax devolution among states for the 2021-26 period:

1. Income Distance (45%): The distance of a state's income from the state with the highest income. 2. Population (15%): Based on the 2011 Census data. 3. Area (15%): To account for the higher cost of providing services in larger geographical areas. 4. Forest and Ecology (10%): Calculated based on the share of the dense forest of each state in the total dense forest of all states. 5. Demographic Performance (12.5%): This criterion was introduced to reward states that have made progress in lowering their fertility rates (using 1971 population data as a benchmark). 6. Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%): To reward states with higher tax collection efficiency.

Analysis of the given list: - Demographic performance: Included (Criterion 5) - Forest and ecology: Included (Criterion 4) - Tax and fiscal efforts: Included (Criterion 6) - Governance reforms: Not included as a criterion for horizontal devolution. - Stable government: Not included as a criterion for horizontal devolution.

Apart from population, area, and income distance, the Commission used three criteria from the list provided (Demographic performance, Forest and ecology, and Tax and fiscal efforts).

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Most common Indian squirrels, such as the Indian Palm Squirrel (Funambulus species) and the Malabar Giant Squirrel (Ratufa indica), are arboreal. They build nests, known as dreys, in tree branches, hollows, or crevices using twigs and leaves, rather than making burrows in the ground.

Statement 2 is Correct: Many squirrel species exhibit "scatter hoarding" behavior. They store food materials like nuts and seeds by burying them in various shallow locations in the ground to retrieve them during times of food scarcity. This behavior is a key ecological process for seed dispersal.

Statement 3 is Correct: Squirrels are opportunistic omnivores. While their diet primarily consists of seeds, nuts, fruits, and fungi, they also consume insects, caterpillars, bird eggs, and occasionally small vertebrates like lizards or young birds.

None of the pairs (1, 2, or 3) are correctly matched. Let's break it down:

1. North Kivu and Ituri: This region in the Democratic Republic of Congo experiences conflict, but is not related to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan.

2. Nagorno-Karabakh: This enclave is disputed between Armenia and Azerbaijan, but the insurgency is happening in Mozambique.

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: These are currently under heavy fighting in the Russia-Ukraine war, not a dispute between Israel and Lebanon.


* Statement 1 is correct The National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7th August to honour the handloom weavers in the country and also highlight India's handloom industry. The first National Handloom Day was held on 7th August 2015.

* Statement 2 is correct August 7 was chosen as the National Handloom Day to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on August 7 in 1905 in Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal by the British Government. The Swadeshi movement had aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes.

Hence Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: Amarkantak is a pilgrim town in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh. Amarkantak Hills is the meeting point of the Vindhya, Satpura, and Maikal Ranges. It is also the origin of the Narmada, Son, and Johilla Rivers.

* Statement 2 is incorrect: The Billigirirangan Hills, also known as BR Hills, are not a part of the Satpura range. It is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District). The area is called Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary or simply BRT Wildlife Sanctuary.

* Statement 3 is incorrect: The Seshachalam Hills, also known as Tirumala Hills, are not a part of the Western Ghats. Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh. The Seshachalam hill ranges are predominantly present in Tirupati district of the Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh.

* Pair 1 is correct: Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. Today, the landlord port is the dominant port model in larger and medium-sized ports.

* Pair 2 is correct: Mundra Port is the largest private port in India. The port of Mundra is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, in the state of Gujarat. Mundra is a major hub for containers and bulk cargo. It is run by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and began operations in 2001. Mundra Airport is undergoing major developments to convert it into an international airport for air cargo.

* Pair 3 is incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust Nhava Sheva (JNPT) is the largest container port in India and one of the most essential subcontinent harbours on the Western coast.


* Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

* Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) mentions that individuals detained under preventive detention laws are not initially entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner until the grounds of detention are disclosed to them. Although the constitution allows for exceptions in preventive detention cases, it does not prohibit state governments from providing legal counsel to the detained person. The state has the discretion to offer legal assistance if it wishes.

* Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of POTA 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of at least Superintendent rank, overriding certain provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: Devichandraguptam is attributed to Vishakhadatta, a Sanskrit playwright. Bilhana was a poet who lived much later.

* Statement 2 is correct: Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri, a Jain scholar and poet.

* Statement 3 is incorrect: Milinda-Panha is a dialogue between Buddhist philosopher Nagasena and Indo-Greek King Milinda, focusing on Buddhist concepts like non-self (anatta) and nirvana. Nagasena belonged to the Hinayana tradition, while Nagarjuna, often confused with him, was a Mahayana scholar. For clarity in UPSC, refer to the Milinda-Panha philosopher as Nagasena.

* Statement 4 is correct: Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri.

Thus, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

* Statement I is correct: Marsupials, which are a type of mammal characterised by the presence of a pouch (marsupium) for carrying their young, are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are primarily native to the Americas and Australia.

* Statement II is incorrect: Marsupials can thrive in a variety of habitats, not just montane grasslands without predators. Many marsupial species are found in a wide range of ecosystems, including forests, savannas, and even urban areas, and can coexist with a variety of predators. Therefore, the correct answer is: Statement-I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.

All four statements are correct.

* Medicinal mushrooms: Certain mushroom species have been used in traditional medicine for centuries and are still being studied for their potential health benefits. Examples include reishi mushrooms (Ganoderma lucidum) for immune system support and lion's mane mushrooms (Hericium erinaceus) for cognitive function.

* Psychoactive mushrooms: Some mushrooms contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive compound that can induce hallucinations. These are commonly referred to as "magic mushrooms" or psilocybin mushrooms.

* Insecticidal mushrooms: Some mushroom species produce natural compounds that can repel or even kill insects. These compounds act as a defence mechanism for the mushrooms against insect pests.

* Bioluminescent mushrooms: A less common but fascinating property, bioluminescence, is found in some mushroom species. These mushrooms can produce and emit light, creating a glowing effect.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered and follow a high, arcing trajectory, reaching supersonic speeds. In contrast, cruise missiles are jet-propelled, fly at lower altitudes, and can be subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic. The statement incorrectly swaps their propulsion characteristics.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Agni-V is a solid-fuelled Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Russia. The statement incorrectly swaps the types of these two missiles.

The Assertion is Correct: India possesses domestic uranium deposits in regions such as the Singhbhum Shear Zone (Jharkhand) and the Cuddapah Basin (Andhra Pradesh). Despite these reserves, coal remains the primary source of electricity in India, accounting for over 70% of the total power generation.

The Reason is Incorrect: Commercial electricity production does not require 60% enrichment. India's Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) use natural uranium (0.7% U-235) as fuel, while Light Water Reactors (LWRs) typically use Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) enriched to 3-5%. Uranium enriched to 60% or more is classified as Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU), which is used for research reactors or naval propulsion, not standard power plants.

The Reason is factually incorrect and does not explain the Assertion.

Statement 1 is Correct: Hyperthermophiles are microorganisms that can thrive in temperatures above 100°C (the boiling point of water). For example, *Pyrolobus fumarii* is an archaeon that lives in hydrothermal vents at temperatures up to 113°C.

Statement 2 is Correct: Psychrophiles (or cryophiles) are extremophilic organisms capable of growth and reproduction in cold temperatures, often ranging from -20°C to +10°C, which is below the freezing point of water (0°C).

Statement 3 is Correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that thrive in highly acidic environments. Extreme acidophiles, such as *Picrophilus oshimae*, can grow optimally at pH levels below 3, with some species surviving at pH levels near 0.

* Both statements about the G-20 are correct

* Statement 1 is correct: The G-20 originated as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to address global economic and financial issues. It has since expanded its focus to other areas of international cooperation.

* Statement 2 is correct: India, as the chair of the G-20 in 2023, prioritised digital public infrastructure as one of its key areas of focus. This included discussions on promoting responsible use of artificial intelligence, bridging the digital divide, and fostering inclusive growth through digitalization.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Besnagar (Bhilsa or Vidisha) in Madhya Pradesh, is not particularly well-known for a Shaivite cave shrine. Archaeological excavations revealed remains of Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu temples, but the site is more famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, an ancient Garuda pillar dedicated to Lord Vishnu.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bhaja Caves (near Pune, Maharashtra) are a group of 22 rock-cut caves built during the 2nd century BC and are well known for their Buddhist architecture and sculptures.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sittanavasal (Pudukottai district, Tamil Nadu) is a village known for its Jain cave shrine, considered to be among the oldest Jain monuments in India.

* Community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Section 36 D of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA): The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. The committee shall elect a Chairman who shall also be the Honorary WildLife Warden on the community reserve.

* Statement 2 is correct: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, thus hunting is prohibited in community reserves.

* Statement 3 is correct: People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

* Statement 4 is incorrect: After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are also not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as shifting (jhum) cultivation.

* Statement-I is correct: In the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic, global economies faced significant inflationary pressures due to supply chain disruptions and increased demand. To curb this inflation, many central banks, including the US Federal Reserve and the Reserve Bank of India, initiated a series of interest rate hikes to reduce liquidity in the market. * Statement-II is correct: A core principle of modern central banking is the belief that monetary policy tools—specifically adjusting interest rates—can influence economic activity and price levels. By raising rates, central banks aim to reduce spending and investment, thereby cooling down rising consumer prices. * Relationship: Statement-II explains the underlying logic behind the actions mentioned in Statement-I. Central banks carried out interest rate hikes *because* they operate under the assumption that such monetary policy measures are effective tools to counteract inflation. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Jhelum River, which originates from the Verinag Spring in the Kashmir Valley, flows through Srinagar and enters the Wular Lake before continuing its course towards Baramulla.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Kolleru Lake is located between the deltas of the Krishna and Godavari rivers in Andhra Pradesh. It is not directly fed by the main Krishna River; instead, it receives water from seasonal streams such as the Budameru and Tammileru, which are independent inflows and not distributaries of the Krishna or Godavari systems.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Kanwar Lake (also known as Kabartal) in Bihar is an oxbow lake formed by the meandering of the Burhi Gandak River. The Burhi Gandak is a separate river system that flows parallel to the main Gandak River.

* The Constitution contains the basic principles and laws of a nation that determine the powers and duties of the government. A constitution serves multiple purposes. It provides a legitimate legal and political basis for the Government to propose and enact laws, organising public service and settling disputes.

* Although the Constitution determines the objectives (DPSP) for the making of necessary laws and aims to promote social, economic and political democracy, its chief purpose is to limit the power of government. In fact the Constitutional government is by definition limited government.

* Lion-tailed Macaque: This is a diurnal animal, meaning it's active during the day.

* Malabar Civet: This is a nocturnal animal, primarily active at night.

* Sambar Deer: These are crepuscular animals, most active during dawn and dusk.

Therefore, only one (1) of the fauna is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset (Malabar Civet).


* The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is an agreement, among all of the 27 member states of the European Union, to facilitate and maintain the economic stability of the EU countries.The European Commission and the Council of the European Union, monitors the fiscal condition of EU member countries from time to time to ensure their fiscal stability.

* Statement 1 is correct: It is true that SGP aims to level the budget deficits of European countries. The corrective arm of the Stability and Growth Pact ensures that Member States adopt appropriate policy responses to correct excessive deficits (and/or debts) by implementing the Excessive Deficit Procedure (EDP). Also the SGP requires the EU Member States to lay out their fiscal plans for the next three years to limit their budget deficits.

* Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: The SGP treaty does not require its members to share their infrastructure facilities nor their technologies with other countries. The purpose of the SGP was to ensure that fiscal discipline would be maintained and enforced in the European Union.

* Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2) are both minerals that contain high concentrations of titanium.

* Titanium is a strong and lightweight metal known for its excellent corrosion resistance and high strength-to-weight ratio. It is widely used in various industries, including aerospace, automotive, medical, and construction.

* In India, certain coastal tracts are known for their significant ilmenite and rutile deposits. Hence these minerals are also called beach sand minerals. These minerals are commonly found in beach sand deposits and are extracted through beach sand mining operations. The extracted ilmenite and rutile are processed to obtain titanium dioxide (TiO2), which is then further refined to produce metallic titanium.

* Beach sand is rich in seven heavy minerals—ilmenite, leucoxene, rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite.