2024

Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized in the human body by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase from the amino acid arginine. It plays a crucial role in dilating blood vessels, which increases blood flow and reduces blood pressure. This function helps in regulating cardiovascular health.

_Why the other options are incorrect:_

B. Nitrous oxide: Used as an anesthetic, not a vasodilator.

C. Nitrogen dioxide: A toxic air pollutant, not involved in vasodilation.

D. Nitrogen pentoxide: A reactive compound, not related to blood vessel dilation.

* Farmer's plough - Working capital - Incorrect: A farmer's plough is a long-term asset used repeatedly over time, making it fixed capital.

* Computer - Fixed capital - Correct: A computer is a long-term asset used over a period of time, making it fixed capital.

* Yarn used by the weaver - Fixed capital - Incorrect: Yarn is consumed in the production process and needs to be replaced regularly, making it working capital.

* Petrol - Working capital - Correct: Petrol is consumed in the production process and needs to be replenished regularly, making it working capital.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

* Statement 1: Correct. India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council (IGC).

* Statement 2: Incorrect. Membership in the IGC is not a prerequisite for engaging in the rice and wheat trade. Countries that are not members can still export and import these grains. The IGC primarily serves as a forum for intergovernmental cooperation and policy discussion on grain trade.

* Italy and Japan are often cited as prime examples of countries with rapidly ageing populations and very low birth rates. Both countries have been grappling with the economic and social consequences of these demographic trends for several years.

* South Korea has also emerged as a country with significant demographic concerns. Its fertility rate is one of the lowest in the world, and its population is projected to start declining in the coming years.


* Nigeria and South Africa, while facing their own set of demographic challenges, are generally not highlighted for low birth rates or declining populations. Nigeria has a very young and rapidly growing population. South Africa's population growth has slowed in recent years, but it is not yet experiencing a decline.

* Membrane Bioreactors are often discussed in the context of: D. Wastewater treatment technologies.

* Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine a membrane process like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process. * They are used to improve the quality of treated wastewater and are known for their efficiency in removing contaminants.

* Statement 1: Correct. The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India state that expenditures aimed at benefiting the company's business interests or its employees (such as those related to employee welfare or activities that are a direct business benefit) will not be counted as CSR activities. The focus of CSR is on activities that benefit society at large and not just the company or its direct stakeholders.

* Statement 2: Incorrect. Under the Companies Act, 2013, CSR rules do specify a minimum spending requirement. Companies meeting certain criteria (like having a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or an annual turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more) must allocate at least 2% of their average net profits over the last three years towards CSR activities.

So, the correct answer is: A. 1 only

* Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian diplomat and politician serving as the Minister of External Affairs of India since 2019. He has authored two prominent books:

* 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) which provides insights into India's foreign policy approach.

* 'Why Bharat Matters' is a compilation of his articles and speeches that delve into India's global significance.


Chhau dance - Chhau is a traditional Indian dance-drama form originating from eastern India, primarily in Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. It has three styles: Seraikella Chhau (Jharkhand), Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha) and Purulia Chhau (West Bengal). Chhau dance got inscribed in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2010.


_Please Note: Chhau is basically a mask dance. However, Mayurbhanj Chhau is the only one which is performed without a mask._

Durga Puja (West Bengal) - It is an annual Hindu festival particularly significant in West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, and other parts of India. Durga Puja was added to the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2021.

Garba Dance (Gujarat) - has been inscribed in the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) of Humanity by UNESCO, under the provisions of the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage during the 18th meeting of the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage from 5th -9th December 2023 in Kasane, Botswana.

Kumbh Mela - Kumbh Mela is a major Hindu pilgrimage and festival celebrated at four sites: Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh), Haridwar (Uttarakhand), Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh) and Nashik (Maharashtra). The Kumbh Mela was recognized as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in the year 2017.

Understanding Isotherms and Their Behavior

* Isotherms are lines on a map connecting points with the same temperature.

* January is a winter month in the Northern Hemisphere.

* Land and Water Heating Differences: Land heats up and cools down faster than water. This leads to significant temperature differences between continents and oceans in winter.

Statement 1: Correct

* In January, continents are colder than oceans in the Northern Hemisphere.

* Isotherms bend northward over oceans, indicating warmer temperatures.

* Isotherms bend southward over continents, indicating colder temperatures.

Statement 2: Incorrect

* The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents, not cold.

* These currents bring warm water from the tropics towards Europe, making the North Atlantic relatively warmer in winter.

* Isotherms bend northward over the North Atlantic due to these warm currents.

Conclusion: Only statement 1 is a correct inference from isothermal maps in January.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The President of India, not the Governor of a State, has the power to specify a community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST) for a particular state or Union Territory. This is done through a notification in the Official Gazette, after consultation with the concerned State government. Statement 2 is correct: The specification of Scheduled Tribes is not uniform across the country. A community recognized as an ST in one State may not be recognized as such in another State. This is because the criteria for scheduling are based on social, educational, and economic backwardness, which can vary across regions.

Statement 1 (Equator) is incorrect: The Equator experiences exactly 12 hours of daylight throughout the year, as it lies midway between the poles and the sun's rays fall almost equally throughout the year.

Statement 2 (Tropic of Cancer) is correct: On June 21 (Summer Solstice), the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, and the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) receives the direct rays of the Sun. Hence, regions along this latitude experience more than 12 hours of daylight.

Statement 3 (Tropic of Capricorn) is incorrect: The Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S) lies in the Southern Hemisphere, which is tilted away from the Sun on June 21. Therefore, it experiences less than 12 hours of daylight.

Statement 4 (Arctic Circle) is correct: On June 21, the Arctic Circle (66.5° N) experiences 24 hours of continuous daylight — known as the Midnight Sun phenomenon.

Therefore, both the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of daylight on June 21st.


* Statement 1 is correct. Lions can breed throughout the year, but they do show some seasonal preferences depending on their location and environmental factors like rainfall.

* Statement 2 is correct. Cheetahs have a different vocal structure compared to lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, preventing them from roaring. They purr, chirp, and make other bird-like sounds.

* Statement 3 is incorrect. Both male lions and male leopards use scent marking extensively to define their territories. They spray urine and scrape the ground, leaving both olfactory and visual signals for other cats.

_Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct._

Statement 1 is incorrect. Insolation reaches the earth's surface in short waves and heat is radiated from the earth in long waves, Hence energy leaving the earth's surface i.e. terrestrial radiation heats up the atmosphere more than the incoming solar radiation i.e. insolation.


Statement 2 is correct. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (such as water vapour and carbon dioxide) absorb most of the Earth's emitted longwave infrared radiation, which heats the lower atmosphere.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the RBI's 2013 Scheme for Setting up of Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS), a foreign bank must have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹500 crore (₹5 billion). The claim that there is "no minimum capital" is factually false.

Statement 2 is incorrect: This is the high-nuance part. The actual RBI rule states that not less than 50% of the directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs. Because the statement in the question restricted the 50% requirement only to "Indian nationals," it excluded NRIs and PIOs, making the statement legally inaccurate. Furthermore, there is a separate sub-condition that at least one-third of the directors must be Indian nationals who are specifically resident in India.

* Dhuandhar: This waterfall is located on the Narmada River, but the region is not Malwa. It is in Madhya Pradesh Mahakoshal region. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

* Hundru: This waterfall is indeed located on the Subarnarekha River within the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

* Gersoppa (also known as Jog Falls): This waterfall is on the Sharavati River in the Western Ghats, not the Netravati River. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

* Statement I is incorrect: India does import apples from the USA. In fact, the USA is one of the major sources of apple imports for India.

* Statement II is correct: India has stringent regulations regarding the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the competent authority responsible for assessing the safety of GM crops and foods. Importing GM food without GEAC approval is illegal.

* Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

* Butterflies: Some butterfly species, like the Monarch butterfly, are poisonous. They consume milkweed during their larval stage, which makes them toxic to predators.

* Fish: Many fish species are poisonous, such as pufferfish, lionfish, and stonefish. They possess venom as a defense mechanism.

* Frogs: Poison dart frogs are a well-known example of poisonous frogs. Their skin secretes toxins that can be deadly.

_Therefore, all three groups have poisonous species._

* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join.

* Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.

* Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are instruments of the: C. Money market

* CBLO is a money market instrument that facilitates borrowing and lending operations on a collateralized basis. It is used by banks, financial institutions, and other entities to manage their short-term liquidity requirements.

* Statement-I: This statement is correct. If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds would not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. This statement is correct because, in the event of a default, the government would not be able to fulfil its debt obligations, meaning bondholders would not receive the payments they are due.

* Statement-II: This statement is correct. The US government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. This statement is also correct. US Government debt, such as Treasury Bonds, is backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government rather than any specific physical assets.

* Statement II explains Statement I because the faith and credit of the US Government are the guarantees behind its debt. If this faith is shaken or if the government defaults, bondholders cannot claim any specific assets to recover their investment, hence they would not receive their payments.

Statement-I is incorrect: Following the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, the number of schedules was reduced from six to four. Schedule V (the vermin category) was abolished. The Indian Flying Fox is currently listed under Schedule II, providing it with higher protection. It is no longer legally classified as "vermin" under the Act.

Statement-II is incorrect: The Indian Flying Fox is one of the largest bats in the world and is a frugivore. Its diet consists of fruits (like mangoes, guavas, and figs) and nectar. It does not feed on blood; "vampire bats" are a different group of species found primarily in Central and South America.

Note: None of the option is correct as both options are incorrect, UPSC dropped this question from the final answer key.

Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by advanced stealth, superior agility, advanced avionics, and integrated computer systems. Let's consider the aircraft listed:

1. Rafale: This is a 4.5 generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by Dassault Aviation.

2. MiG-29: This is a fourth-generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by Mikoyan in the Soviet Union.

3. Tejas MK-1: This is a fourth-generation light multirole fighter aircraft developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in India.

_None of the above aircraft are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft._

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President has the authority to prorogue the Houses, or either House of Parliament, from time to time. The termination of a session of the House by an order from the President under this provision is referred to as 'prorogation.' The President exercises this power of prorogation only upon the recommendation of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet, i.e., the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct. Typically, prorogation follows adjournment sine die, but technically, the President can prorogue a House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct. The President usually dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances such as a vote of no confidence or other political crises.

* Statement 1: Correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, any bill pending in the Lok Sabha automatically lapses. This is because the dissolution of the Lok Sabha ends its session, and all legislative business in progress becomes void.

* Statement 2: Correct. If a bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is true even if the Rajya Sabha has not yet acted on the bill.

* Statement 3: Incorrect. A bill regarding which the President has notified a joint sitting will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be taken up in the next session after the Lok Sabha is reconstituted. A joint sitting is called only when there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker cannot preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is active, even if they are present.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker maintains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote only in the first instance. They do not have a "casting vote" (the vote used to break a tie/second instance) in this specific scenario.

* Statement 1 is incorrect: Upanishads are known for their philosophical dialogues and teachings, and they often employ allegories and parables to convey complex ideas. For example, the Chandogya Upanishad contains the well-known parable of 'Satyakama Jabala' and his search for truth.

* Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads form the concluding part of the Vedas and are known as 'Vedanta' (the end of the Vedas). They are believed to have been composed between 800-500 BCE. Puranas, on the other hand, are a later genre of Hindu texts, composed from around the 3rd century CE onwards.

* Statement 1: Correct. The Red Sea is located in a desert region with very high temperatures and low humidity. This leads to very little rainfall or any form of precipitation.

* Statement 2: Correct. Due to its location, no major rivers are flowing into the Red Sea. The water in the Red Sea comes primarily from the inflow of saltier water from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.


Hence, both statements (1 and 2) are correct.

Writ of Prohibition:

* It is a judicial order issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal.

* It prevents the lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to law.

* Purpose: To stop ongoing proceedings in a case where the lower court lacks jurisdiction or violates legal procedures.

* Nature: It is preventive, ensuring the lower court does not act unlawfully rather than correcting a wrong decision after it has occurred.

* Example: If a tribunal starts hearing a case that legally falls under the jurisdiction of a civil court, the Writ of Prohibition can halt such proceedings.

* Comparison with Certiorari: Prohibition is issued before judgment to stop proceedings, whereas Certiorari is issued after judgment to quash orders passed unlawfully.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), the newly inserted Article 334A specifies that the reservation will come into effect only after an exercise of delimitation is undertaken for this purpose after the relevant figures for the first census taken after the commencement of the Act have been published. Consequently, it did not apply to the 18th Lok Sabha elections.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Act provides that the reservation of seats for women shall continue for a period of 15 years from the date of its commencement. However, the Parliament has the authority to extend this period by law.

Statement 3 is Correct: The Act includes provisions for horizontal reservation, ensuring that one-third of the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are reserved for women from those respective categories.

Statement 1 is Correct: According to Section 3(1) of the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended by the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the Governors of the constituent states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura) are members of the Council.

Statement 2 is Correct: Section 3(1) of the amended Act also includes the Chief Ministers of the constituent states as members of the Council.

Statement 3 is Correct: The 2002 Amendment specifically expanded the Council's composition to include three members to be nominated by the President of India.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, does not include the Union Home Minister in the list of members. While the Union Home Minister was made the ex-officio Chairman of the NEC in June 2018 following a Union Cabinet decision, this was done through a Presidential nomination under the powers provided by the Act, rather than being a statutory membership requirement defined in the 2002 amendment text itself.