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YEAR ASKED IN

2025

Practice UPSC 2025 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 80 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member…

    Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Incorrect The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Union Council of Ministers.

    Statement II: Incorrect The word 'political party' is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.

    Therefore, neither statement is correct.

  2. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and…

    Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

    1. AThe Asian Development Bank (ADB)
    2. BThe Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    3. CThe New Development Bank (NDB)
    4. DThe International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Nature-based solutions involve using natural processes to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss, often needing dedicated financial support.

    ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to fund nature-based solutions for climate and environmental challenges in the region.

  3. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous…

    Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and III
    3. CII only
    4. DII and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula) is a rare, tree-dwelling spider found in limited forest areas in India.

    Statement I is incorrect: * It is a spider (arachnid), not an omnivorous crustacean.

    Statement II is correct: * Its habitat is restricted to some forest areas in the Eastern Ghats.

    Statement III is correct: * It is arboreal, living in trees and tree crevices.

    So, the correct answer is: D

  4. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region –…

    With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region – River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti : Mahanadi IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Pair 1 is correct: Asmaka (or Assaka) was the southernmost Mahajanapada, located in the Deccan region on the banks of the Godavari river.

    Pair 2 is incorrect: Kamboja was located in the extreme north-west (modern-day Afghanistan and Kashmir). The Vipas (Beas) river flows through Punjab, which is geographically distinct and east of the Kamboja region.

    Pair 3 is incorrect: Avanti was in western Madhya Pradesh (Malwa region). The main rivers flowing through it were the Kshipra and Vetravati, not the Mahanadi (which flows through Odisha and Chhattisgarh).

    Pair 4 is correct: Kosala was a Mahajanapada in present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh. Its capital, Ayodhya, is situated on the banks of the Sarayu river.

  5. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love…

    Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a reformer who respected Indian traditions but promoted rational thinking and social equality.

    Statement I is correct: * He respected traditional Eastern philosophies like Vedanta and sought their reform.

    Statement II is correct: * He advocated for rationalism, scientific thinking, and equality of all men and women.

    So, the correct answer is: C

  6. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

    Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

    1. A'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    2. BDr. B. R. Ambedkar
    3. CBhaskarrao Jadhav
    4. DDinkarrao Javalkar
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Self-Respect Movement, started in 1925, aimed to dismantle caste hierarchies and promote social equality, especially for non-Brahmin communities in Tamil Nadu.

    He founded the Self-Respect Movement to fight caste oppression and promote rationalism and equality.

  7. Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a…

    Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Critical minerals are essential for modern technologies and clean energy, but many countries, including India, depend on imports for several of them. To strengthen supply chains, India has joined international partnerships and reformed mining laws.

    Statement I: Correct India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to ensure reliable access to critical minerals.

    Statement II: Incorrect India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified and remains import-dependent for several, like cobalt and nickel.

    Statement III: Correct In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals Act, giving the Central Government power to auction leases for critical minerals.

  8. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in…

    Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I: Correct *India co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris (Feb 2025), continuing efforts from the Bletchley Park (UK, 2023) and Seoul (South Korea, 2024) Summits on AI governance.*

    Statement II: Incorrect *The joint statement on 'Inclusive and Sustainable AI' was signed by 58 countries including India and China, but the US and UK did not sign due to concerns about overregulation.*

    Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.

  9. Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the "Declaration on Climate and Health". Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    At COP28, India chose not to sign the "Declaration on Climate and Health," and this decision can be understood by analyzing the nature of the declaration and India's concerns.

    Statement I: Correct. India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, unlike over 120 other countries.

    Statement II: Incorrect. The declaration is not legally binding; it is a voluntary political commitment. Signing it does not legally mandate countries to decarbonize their health sectors immediately.

    Statement III: Correct. India's concern is that rapid decarbonization of its health sector could compromise the resilience and accessibility of healthcare services, given current developmental challenges and resource constraints.

    Therefore, only Statement III correctly explains Statement I, while Statement II is factually wrong about the binding nature of the declaration.

  10. Consider the following statements in respect of the Kho Kho World Cup: I. The…

    Consider the following statements in respect of the Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I: Correct The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, from January 13-19, 2025.

    Statement II: Incorrect India defeated Nepal 54-36 (not 78-40) to win the men's final.

    Statement III: Incorrect India beat Nepal 78-40 (not 54-36) in the women's final.

    Additional Context: 24 countries participated, and the event was organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India with the International Kho Kho Federation.

    Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

  11. Consider the following pairs: Country – Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile…

    Consider the following pairs: Country – Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    This question checks knowledge of countries known for major natural resources that play key roles in global markets.

    I. Botswana : Diamond – Correct * Botswana is a top global producer of diamonds, vital to its economy.

    II. Chile : Lithium – Correct * Chile has vast lithium reserves in the Atacama Desert and is a leading global supplier.

    III. Indonesia : Nickel – Correct * Indonesia is the world's largest producer of nickel, crucial for batteries and steel.

  12. Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can…

    Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor). Syngas acts as a fundamental building block for the chemical industry.

    I is correct: Syngas can be converted into Ethanol through various chemical pathways, including catalytic synthesis or fermentation.

    II is incorrect: Nitroglycerine is produced through the nitration of glycerol. Glycerol is typically obtained from natural fats/oils or as a byproduct of biodiesel production, not from coal gasification.

    III is correct: Coal gasification is a major source of hydrogen for producing Ammonia. This ammonia is then reacted with carbon dioxide (also a product of gasification) to produce Urea.

  13. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement I is correct: Satellite data (such as the GRACE mission) has confirmed that the Earth's rotational axis is drifting and the speed of rotation is slightly changing. Since the late 20th century, this "Polar Drift" has accelerated and shifted direction.

    Statement II is correct: Solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) release high-energy particles and radiation that impact the Earth's thermosphere and magnetosphere. While this causes geomagnetic storms and affects satellite drag, it has no significant impact on the orientation of the Earth's rotational axis.

    Statement III is correct: When massive polar ice sheets melt, the resulting water is redistributed. Due to centrifugal force, this water accumulates more near the equator than at the poles. This represents a major surface mass redistribution.

    The Relationship: Statement III explains Statement I. In physics, when the mass of a rotating sphere is moved from the axis (the poles) toward the perimeter (the equator), the "Moment of Inertia" increases, causing a shift in the axis of rotation and a slight slowing of the rotation speed.

  14. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is crucial as it outlines international cooperation through both carbon markets and non-market approaches to help countries meet climate goals.

    Statement I is correct: * Article 6 is widely discussed because it enables cooperation through market and non-market means to fight climate change.

    Statement II is correct: * It defines rules for carbon markets, including carbon trading and credit mechanisms.

    Statement III is correct: * It also promotes non-market tools like technology transfer and capacity building to reach climate targets.

    So, the correct answer is: A

  15. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization…

    Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and IV
    4. DI only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Correct *BIMSTEC currently has seven members: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.*

    Statement II: Incorrect *BIMSTEC was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration in 1999.*

    Statement III: Incorrect *Founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Myanmar; Nepal and Bhutan joined later.*

    Statement IV: Incorrect *Nepal leads tourism subsector, not India; India leads sectors like Counter-Terrorism and Energy.*

    Correct Answer: Only Statement I is correct.

  16. Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos…

    Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Incorrect *Lake Tanganyika lies south of the Equator, in Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, and Zambia.*

    Statement II: Incorrect *Lake Tonlé Sap is in Cambodia, well north of the Equator.*

    Statement III: Incorrect *Patos Lagoon is in southern Brazil, far south of the Equator.*

    Correct Answer: (D) None The Equator does not pass through any of the three water bodies listed.

  17. Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Bonds are debt instruments, while stocks represent ownership. Bondholders earn fixed interest and are repaid before stockholders, making them relatively less risky investors.

    Statement I: Correct Bondholders face lower risk as they receive fixed returns and are prioritized during repayment over stockholders.

    Statement II: Correct Bondholders are lenders to the company; stockholders are owners.

    Statement III: Correct In case of liquidation, companies repay bondholders before stockholders.

  18. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and…

    Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

    1. AThe Poona Pact
    2. BThe Gandhi–Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
    3. CArrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
    4. DPromulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Mahatma Gandhi made the upliftment of *Harijans* a central goal after opposing separate electorates for the Depressed Classes in the British Communal Award.

    After the Poona Pact (1932), signed with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Gandhi intensified efforts to eradicate untouchability, forming the Harijan Sevak Sangh and launching the 'Harijan' journal.

  19. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of…

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The Indian Constitution provides legal immunities and privileges to ensure the independent functioning of constitutional offices and legislative bodies.

    Statement I: Correct * As per Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for actions taken in the course of their official duties.

    Statement II: Correct * Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against a Governor during their term.

    Statement III: Correct * Article 194(2) grants immunity to State Legislators for anything said or any vote given within the House or its committees.

  20. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I.…

    Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and III only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DII and III only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I is correct: Geological matching (Jigsaw Fit) shows that the 2,000-million-year-old belt of ancient rocks from the Brazilian coast matches those from Western Africa. This suggests the two continents were once joined.

    Statement II is correct: This refers to "Placer Deposits." Ghana possesses rich placer deposits of gold despite having no known source rock (mother lode) in the region. The gold-bearing veins are actually located in Brazil, proving the continents were once side-by-side.

    Statement III is correct: The Gondwana system of glacial tillite sediments found in India has identical counterparts in six different landmasses: Africa, the Falkland Islands, Madagascar, Antarctica, Australia, and South America. This provides powerful evidence of a shared climatic and geological history.

    Correct Answer: All three statements are correct.

  21. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and…

    Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The Non-Cooperation Programme aimed to resist British rule through boycott and self-reliance, emphasizing non-violence and alternative institutions.

    Statement I is correct: * Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth was a key part of the movement.

    Statement II is correct: * Strict non-violence was insisted upon by Gandhi during the movement.

    Statement III is incorrect: * The programme required surrendering British titles and honours, not retaining them.

    Statement IV is correct: * Setting up Panchayats to settle disputes locally was encouraged.

    So, the correct answer is: C (Only three)

  22. Consider the following pairs: State – Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is…

    Consider the following pairs: State – Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks. II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act. III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states.

    Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct * Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort. * The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling.

    Pair II: Nagaland – Correct * Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962.

    Pair III: Tripura – Correct * Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.

  23. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

    Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

    1. ASamudragupta
    2. BChandragupta II
    3. CKumaragupta I
    4. DSkandagupta
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    The correct answer is B. Chandragupta II.

    Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. He arrived around the early 5th century CE, seeking Buddhist texts and studying the practices of Buddhism in India. His travel accounts provide valuable information about Gupta India's society, administration, and Buddhism.

    The other rulers listed do not align with the period of Fa-hien's visit.

  24. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can…

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    An Ordinance is a temporary law issued by the President (Article 123) or Governor (Article 213) when the legislature is not in session. It holds the same force as a regular law, but must adhere to constitutional limits.

    Statement I: Correct * An Ordinance can amend any Central Act, just like a Parliamentary law, subject to constitutional provisions.

    Statement II: Incorrect * Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights as per Article 13(2) of the Constitution. Any such provision is void.

    Statement III: Correct * Ordinances can be given retrospective effect, i.e., they can be enforced from a past date.

  25. Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction…

    Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Capital receipts involve transactions that either increase liabilities or reduce assets for the government. Revenue receipts, on the other hand, are routine incomes like interest or taxes that don't affect assets or liabilities.

    Statement I: Correct * Capital receipts create liabilities (like borrowings) or reduce assets (like disinvestment).

    Statement II: Correct * Borrowings and disinvestment are both capital receipts.

    Statement III: Incorrect * Interest received is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt—it's income, not a liability.

  26. Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all…

    Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    India has seen a massive rise in equity options trading and stock market capitalization, but investor protection is actively overseen by SEBI.

    Statement I: Correct India leads globally in equity options trading volume, reflecting a major boom in the derivatives market.

    Statement II: Correct In early 2024, India's stock market temporarily overtook Hong Kong's, becoming the 4th largest by market cap.

    Statement III: Incorrect India has a regulatory body—SEBI—which issues warnings and acts against unregistered advisors.

  27. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of…

    Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AII and IV only
    2. BI, II and III
    3. CII, III and IV
    4. DI and III only
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Incorrect *The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury.*

    Statement II: Correct *The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury.*

    Statement III: Correct *The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI) is a Jury member.*

    Statement IV: Correct *The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of largest opposition party) is a Jury member.*

    Correct Answer: Statements II, III, and IV are correct.

  28. Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden…

    Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

    1. AOnly three
    2. BOnly four
    3. COnly five
    4. DAll the six
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    I. Austria - Not a NATO member (maintains neutrality).

    II.Bulgaria - NATO member (joined in 2004).

    III. Croatia - NATO member (joined in 2009).

    IV.Serbia - Not a NATO member (participates in Partnership for Peace, but not a full member).

    V. Sweden - NATO member (officially joined in March 2024).

    VI. North Macedonia - NATO member (joined in 2020).

    So, four of the listed countries are members of NATO: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia.

  29. With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National…

    With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Among the listed bodies, only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution of India. The others are based on statutory or executive provisions.

    I. Inter-State Council – Correct * Established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate Centre-State coordination.

    II. National Security Council – Incorrect * Formed in 1998 by an executive order, not mentioned in the Constitution.

    III. Zonal Councils – Incorrect * Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, a statutory but non-constitutional body.

  30. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX…

    What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

    1. AThese are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
    2. BThese are explosives in military weapons
    3. CThese are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
    4. DThese are fuels for rocket propulsion
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are chemical substances known for their use as high-energy explosives in military weapons.

    * CL-20: A powerful explosive with high energy density. * HMX: A well-known military explosive used in various munitions. * LLM-105: A newer explosive with similar high performance.

    All three are explosives used in military weapons.

Mains Q&A 80

  1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program, MGNREGA was earlier known as National Rural Employment Scheme, NREGA. It is an Indian Social Welfare Program that aimed at fulfilling the ‘Right to Work’ provisions made in the Constitution. MGNREGA was launched in 2006 under Rural Employment Sector by the Ministry of Rural Development. Main objective of the program is to give legal guarantee of wage employment to the adult members of rural households who are willing to do unskilled manual labour work subject to a maximum of 100 days per year for every household. Every rural household has the right to register under the scheme, job card is issued to the registered, Job Card holder can seek employment; State Government shall pay 25% of minimum wage for the first 30 days as compensatory daily unemployment allowance to the families and of wage for remaining period of the year. MGNREGA work was undertaken by various Gram Panchayats. You have been appointed as an Administrator Incharge of the District. You have been given the responsibility of monitoring MGNREGA work undertaken by various Gram Panchayats. You are also given the authority to give technical sanctions to all MGNREGA works. In one of the Panchayats in your jurisdiction, you notice that your predecessor has mismanaged the Program in terms of: (i) Money not disbursed to actual job-seekers. (ii) Muster Rolls of the Labourers not properly maintained. (iii) Mismatch between the work done and payments made. (iv) Payments made to fictitious persons. (v) Job Cards were given without looking into the need of person. (vi) Mismanagement of funds and to the extent of siphoning of funds. (vii) Approved works that never existed. (a) What is your reaction to the above situation and how do you restore the proper functioning of MGNREGA Program in this regard? (b) What actions would you initiate to solve the various issues listed above? (c) How would you deal with the above situation?