2017

Motupalli was the most significant seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom. To promote foreign trade, King Ganapati Deva issued the famous Motupalli Inscription (Abhaya Shasanam), which acted as a charter of security by granting protection to merchants and fixing reasonable customs duties on exports and imports. The Venetian traveler Marco Polo visited this port (referring to it as 'Mutfili') during the reign of Queen Rudrama Devi and documented the kingdom's prosperity, specifically praising its production of fine muslin and diamonds.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tax revenue as a percent of GDP in India has not steadily increased over the last decade. It has fluctuated — for instance, it rose during periods of strong economic growth but fell during years like 2019–20 and 2020–21 (due to slowdown and the pandemic). Hence, the trend is not steadily upward.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP has also not steadily increased. It narrowed from around 4.5% in 2013–14 to about 3.4% in 2018–19, then spiked during the COVID-19 years (to around 9.2% in 2020–21) and has gradually declined since. Thus, there has been no steady increase over the decade.

Statement 1 is Correct: Arasavalli, located in the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, is home to the famous Sun Temple (Suryanarayana Temple). It was built in the 7th century AD by King Devendra Varma of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is designed such that the sun's rays fall on the feet of the deity twice a year.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Amarakantak in Madhya Pradesh is a significant pilgrimage site known as the source of the Narmada, Son, and Johila rivers. While it houses several ancient temples built by the Kalachuri dynasty (such as the Narmada Udgam Temple), it is not famous for a Sun temple.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Omkareshwar, located on the Mandhata island in the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh, is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is a major Shaivite pilgrimage center and does not host a famous Sun temple.

The trade facilitation decision is a multilateral deal to simplify customs procedures by reducing costs and improving their speed and efficiency.

Statement 1 is correct. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO. This signifies India's official acceptance and implementation of the agreement's provisions.

Statement 2 is correct. The TFA is indeed a part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. This package refers to a collection of agreements reached during the Ninth Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization in Bali, Indonesia. The TFA was a landmark achievement within this package.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) came into force in February 2017, not January 2016. It required ratification by two-thirds of WTO members before taking effect.

Gharial: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Schedule I includes species with the highest protection, prohibiting hunting entirely except under exceptional circumstances like disease control or to prevent human attacks. Therefore, hunting Gharial is illegal.


Indian wild ass: Listed in Schedule I of the Act. Similar to Gharial, hunting the Indian wild ass is also prohibited.

Wild Buffalo: Listed in Schedule I of the Indian WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, Wild Buffalo cannot be hunted.

_Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972 underwent amendments in 2022, which impacted the scheduling of wild animals._ _Previously, there were six schedules. The amendment streamlined them into four schedules._

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted to provide a mechanism for the settlement of industrial disputes. It established a system of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation (tribunals) to investigate and mediate conflicts between employers and employees. Regarding strikes, the Act imposed significant restrictions: it prohibited strikes and lock-outs in public utility services (such as railways, post, and water supply) without a 14-day prior notice. Additionally, it declared illegal any strike or lock-out that had objectives other than the furtherance of a trade dispute within a specific industry or was intended to coerce the government through widespread public hardship. This effectively banned general and political strikes.

The National Nutrition Mission, also known as Poshan Abhiyaan, has several objectives. - The first objective is to create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. - The second objective is to reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. These two objectives are clearly stated in the mission's goals. Hence, statements 1 & 2 are correct.

However, the promotion of the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice, and the promotion of the consumption of poultry eggs are not explicitly stated as objectives of the mission. Hence, statement 3 & 4 are incorrect.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) does decide the RBI's benchmark interest rates. This is its primary function, and it influences the cost of borrowing and lending in the economy.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The MPC is a 6-member body, not 12. It includes the Governor of RBI and other members appointed by the government. The committee is not reconstituted every year, but members serve for specified terms.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the Governor of RBI, not the Union Finance Minister.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Under the PBPT Act, a transaction is specifically defined as benami if the person in whose name the property is held (the benamidar) is unaware of the transaction or denies knowledge of it. Therefore, lack of awareness does not exempt a transaction; rather, it is one of the conditions that characterizes a benami transaction.

Statement 2 is Correct: Section 5 of the Act provides that any property which is the subject matter of a benami transaction shall be liable to be confiscated by the Central Government.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Act provides for four authorities for the purpose of the Act: the Initiating Officer, the Approving Authority, the Administrator, and the Adjudicating Authority. Furthermore, the Act does provide for an appellate mechanism; any person aggrieved by an order of the Adjudicating Authority can appeal to the Appellate Tribunal, and subsequently to the High Court.

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership between governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers.

The GIF provides comprehensive project support by utilizing the combined expertise of its technical and advisory partners, including commercial banks and institutional investors. This ensures that well-structured and bankable infrastructure projects are brought to market sustainably, meeting the needs of governments and service users.

The GIF partnership is overseen by a Governing Council that supervises strategic programming and funds management, as well as the development of operational policies and procedures. Additionally, the Governing Council holds the GIF's management accountable for delivering on objectives and principles. The Governing Council is composed of representatives of funding and technical partners, as well as representatives of emerging markets and developing economies. It is co-chaired by the World Bank Group and a Funding Partner.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were not sects of Jainism but rather were Buddhist philosophical schools. Sautrantika was a Buddhist philosophical school that relied primarily on the sutras (discourses) of the Buddha, as opposed to the Abhidharma (the Buddhist systematic philosophy). Sammitiya was a Buddhist school that held the view that the self (atman) exists, which was in contrast to the mainstream Buddhist view of anatta (non-self).

Statement 2 is correct. Sarvastivada was a major Buddhist philosophical school that held the view of "sarvam asti" or "everything exists". The Sarvastivadins believed that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) did not merely exist in the present moment, but had a real and permanent existence in the past, present, and future. This was in contrast to the Theravada Buddhist view of momentariness, where all phenomena are considered to be constantly arising and passing away.

Statement 1 is Correct: Goods and Service Tax (GST) replaces multiple indirect taxes levied by central and state governments, creating a unified market. This can simplify tax compliance and potentially reduce the cost of goods and services for consumers.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: While GST can improve efficiency in tax collection, it's not a direct solution to the current account deficit, which is influenced by factors like trade balance and foreign investment.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The impact of GST on economic growth is complex and depends on various other factors. It's unlikely to solely propel India's economy to overtake China's in the near future. Therefore, the most likely advantage of GST is 1 only.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Share of agriculture in GDP has actually decreased since 1991, as the service sector has grown significantly.

Statement 2 is Correct: Share of India's exports in world trade has increased. India has become a more integrated part of the global economy, with a larger export footprint.

Statement 3 is Correct: FDI inflows have increased considerably. The liberalisation measures made India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.

Statement 4 is Correct: India's foreign exchange reserves have also increased enormously. This reflects India's improved ability to generate foreign currency and manage its external finances.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2, 3, and 4 only. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is Correct: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are niche banks specifically designed to cater to the underserved and unbanked sections of the population, including small businesses, marginal farmers, and micro-industries.

Statement 2 is Correct: SFBs focus on financial inclusion by providing credit facilities to small businesses and marginal farmers.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: In conclusion, While SFBs might indirectly contribute to rural development by providing credit to small businesses in rural areas, their primary objective is not explicitly to encourage young entrepreneurs to set up businesses there (option 3).

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

A scheme was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 13 June 2016, named Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A Scheme) for addressing the large stressed assets of the corporate sector with banks.

The S4A Scheme aims at the deep financial restructuring of big debted projects by allowing lenders (banks) to acquire equity of the stressed project.

In this context, the scheme makes the financial restructuring of large projects at the same time helping the lender's ability to deal with such stressed assets. It is intended to restore the flow of credit to critical sectors including infrastructure.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price through smooth marketing.

Statement 1 is Correct: Pan-India electronic trading portal (Correct) This is a core feature of NAM. It creates a unified online platform where farmers can connect with buyers from across the country, eliminating geographical restrictions and potentially increasing market access.

Statement 2 is Correct: Access to nationwide markets and better prices (Correct) NAM allows farmers to see prices prevailing in various mandis (wholesale markets) across the country. This transparency empowers them to choose the market offering the best price for their produce, potentially fetching them higher returns compared to traditional, localised markets.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 both are correct.Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is the same mosquito that transmits the dengue virus in tropical and subtropical regions.


Statement 2 is correct: While Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquito bites, the virus can also be transmitted from person to person through sexual contact.

Therefore, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The National Pension System (NPS) was introduced by the Central Government for its employees (excluding the Armed Forces) effective from January 1, 2004.

Why Option C is correct: Following the Central Government's implementation, various State Governments adopted the NPS architecture for their own employees. The scheme becomes applicable to State Government employees based on the specific date of notification issued by their respective State Governments.

Analysis of other options: - Option A is incorrect: NPS is open to all Indian citizens, including both Resident Indians and Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). - Option B is incorrect: The eligibility age for joining NPS is 18 to 70 years (it was 18 to 60 years at the time of the scheme's launch). - Option D is incorrect: The NPS specifically excludes the Armed Forces. Furthermore, the implementation date for Central Government employees was January 1, 2004, not April 1, 2004.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution guarantees justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, but economic liberty is not explicitly mentioned. It specifically ensures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, but does not directly state economic freedom.

However, various constitutional provisions, such as those related to Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), promote economic activities and social justice, indirectly contributing to economic freedom. Yet, since economic liberty is not explicitly stated in the Preamble, it is not one of the guaranteed liberties under it.

Indian federalism is characterized by key features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States, and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha, all of which are enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

However, unlike classical federations like the United States, Indian federalism is not the outcome of an agreement among the federating units. The Indian Constitution, which lays down the framework for India's federal structure, was not created through an agreement among the federating units but was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India.

Local self-government is a key aspect of democratic decentralization, ensuring governance at the grassroots level.

In India, local self-government refers to governing bodies operating below the state level, forming the third tier of governance in the federal structure. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provide constitutional status and protection to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural) and Urban Local Bodies (urban), respectively. Additionally, each state enacts its own legislation to regulate local governance.

Democratic decentralization is the foundation of local self-government, emphasizing: - Democracy: Local citizens actively participate in governance through elected representatives, ensuring direct engagement in decision-making. - Decentralization: Authority and responsibilities are transferred from central and state governments to local bodies, empowering communities to address region-specific issues and enhance efficient governance.

Thus, local self-government in India strengthens grassroots democracy, fosters self-reliance, and ensures better service delivery to the people.

The Cabinet form of Government is a fundamental feature of a parliamentary system, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature. This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Key Aspects of Collective Responsibility: - Decisions of the Cabinet are binding on all ministers and even if they personally disagree, they must publicly support them. - If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign. - This ensures accountability, transparency, and democratic control, preventing arbitrary rule by the executive.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Option A is incorrect: The state does not claim rights against citizens; rather, it is responsible for enforcing and upholding them. Rights are meant to protect individuals from arbitrary state action and ensure their freedoms.

Option B is incorrect: While some rights are enshrined in the Constitution, privileges and rights are not the same. Rights are fundamental entitlements guaranteed to all citizens, whereas privileges are special advantages that can be granted or revoked by the state.

Option C is Correct: Rights are claims of citizens against the State. They empower individuals to expect specific actions or non-actions from the state, ensuring protection of freedoms and access to essential services. The state has a duty to respect, protect, and fulfill these rights.

Option D is incorrect: Rights are not privileges granted to a few but universal entitlements that apply to all citizens. The idea that rights belong only to a select group contradicts the fundamental principle of equality enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

The Right against Exploitation under the Indian Constitution aims to protect individuals from forced labor, human trafficking, and child exploitation.

It specifically includes: - Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor (Article 23): This article bans begar (forced, unpaid labor), bonded labor, and human trafficking in any form. It also prohibits the state and private entities from compelling people to work without fair wages. - Prohibition of child labor in hazardous occupations (Article 24): This article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations to ensure their safety and well-being.

While other rights are crucial, they are not part of the Right against Exploitation: - Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) falls under the Right to Equality and prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form. - Protection of the interests of minorities is covered under Articles 25-30 and primarily falls under the Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural & Educational Rights.

Thus, the Right against Exploitation focuses specifically on preventing forced labor, human trafficking, and child labor, ensuring dignity and freedom from exploitation

Therefore, the correct option is (C) 1 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are positive instructions and fundamental principles for governance rather than legal limitations or prohibitions on the legislative powers of the State. Statement 2 is Incorrect: DPSPs are non-justiciable under Article 37, meaning they do not act as constitutional limitations on executive functions; instead, they serve as guiding goals for the executive to achieve through policy-making and administration.

Statement 1 is correct: The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made).

Statement 2 is incorrect: When President's Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President.

Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President's Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions.

Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected.

Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.

* Article 43A of the Indian Constitution pertains to the "Participation of workers in the management of industries" and is a part of Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

* It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to promote industrial democracy by ensuring that workers have a role in decision-making within industries.

* This provision aligns with the broader goal of economic justice and socialistic principles, as envisioned in the Directive Principles, by advocating for worker participation in industrial management.

* Thus, Article 43A emphasizes the importance of participatory management in industries to promote industrial harmony and economic democracy.

The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Judiciary to examine laws and executive actions to ensure they comply with the Constitution of India.

This power allows the courts to strike down any law or executive order that is found to be unconstitutional, thereby upholding the supremacy of the Constitution.

Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Basic Structure Doctrine, ensuring the protection of fundamental rights and the separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary.

Thus, Judicial Review acts as a safeguard against unconstitutional actions and reinforces the rule of law in India.

Equality means that everyone has the same rights and opportunities, ensuring a fair and just society.

Privileges: They are the opposite of equality because they represent unearned advantages enjoyed by a select few, contradicting the principle that all individuals should have the same rights and opportunities.

Restraints: Some restrictions are necessary to maintain fairness, protect rights, and prevent harm (e.g., laws against discrimination). These restraints can coexist with equality rather than opposing it.

Competition: A society can be both competitive and equal if opportunities are fairly distributed. Competition can drive innovation and progress, but it does not inherently contradict equality.

Ideology: The impact of ideology on equality depends on its nature. Some ideologies promote social justice and equal rights, while others reinforce inequalities. However, ideology itself is not inherently opposed to equality.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is not a five-member body. It is a three-member body, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs). However, it originally started as a single-member body in 1950 and became a multi-member commission in 1993.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is solely responsible for determining the schedule of general elections and bye-elections. It exercises this power under Article 324 of the Constitution, ensuring free and fair elections in the country.

Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India has the authority to resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties. It decides which faction of a party is the legitimate one and, if necessary, allocates party symbols accordingly, based on precedents and internal party strength.

Hence, the correct answer is option (D) 3 only.