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YEAR ASKED IN

2025

Practice UPSC 2025 previous year questions on Anantam IAS: 100 Prelims MCQs and 80 Mains Q&A with answer keys, explanations and topic-wise links.

Prelims MCQs 100

  1. Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I is correct: During the Northern Hemisphere winter (January), isotherms (lines of equal temperature) do not run parallel to latitudes. Instead, they deviate significantly: they bend toward the equator over land and toward the poles over water.

    Statement II is correct: Land has a lower specific heat than water, meaning it loses heat much faster. Consequently, in January, the large landmasses of North America and Eurasia are significantly colder than the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans at the same latitude.

    The Relationship: Statement II explains Statement I: Because the land is colder than the ocean, a line of constant temperature (isotherm) leaving the warm ocean must "dip" south toward the warmer tropical latitudes to find the same temperature once it hits the cold land. When that same line leaves the cold land and enters the warm ocean, it must "climb" north toward the colder polar latitudes to maintain that same temperature value. Thus, the temperature difference is the direct cause of the bending pattern.

  2. Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the…

    Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Papaya, pineapple, and guava are all non-native fruits to India, originally from the Americas, and were introduced during European colonial expansion, particularly by the Portuguese.

    I. Papaya – Correct * Native to Central America, introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.

    II. Pineapple – Correct * Originates from South America, brought to India by Portuguese explorers.

    III. Guava – Correct * Native to Central America, introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century.

  3. Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Income from agriculture is tax-exempt in India, but only core agricultural activities like cultivation qualify. Allied activities such as poultry or dairy are taxable. Also, certain types of land are excluded from capital asset classification under tax law.

    Statement I: Incorrect Allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing are not tax-exempt under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

    Statement II: Correct Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under Section 2(14), so capital gains tax does not apply on its sale.

  4. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradesika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the

    Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

    1. Avillage-level administration
    2. Bdistrict-level administration
    3. Cprovincial administration
    4. Dlevel of the central administration
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Ashokan inscriptions mention 'Pradesika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' as important officers at the district (Pradesa) level.

    * 'Pradesika' managed the district administration. * 'Rajuka' handled revenue and judicial matters. * 'Yukta' was a subordinate official involved in administration and record-keeping.

  5. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I.…

    With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Monoclonal antibodies are lab-made proteins that target specific antigens and can be used to treat viral infections like Nipah virus.

    * I. Man-made proteins – Created by cloning a single immune cell type. * II. Bind to specific antigens – Help stimulate or guide immune response. * III. Used in viral infections – Applied in treating infections like Nipah virus.

    All three statements are correct.

  6. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and…

    Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

    1. AThe European Union
    2. BThe World Bank
    3. CThe Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    4. DThe Food and Agriculture Organization
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    A. The European Union: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is an EU legislative initiative adopted in 2024. It sets binding targets to restore ecosystems, fight climate change, and protect biodiversity across EU member states.

    B. The World Bank: An international financial institution providing loans and grants; it does not enact laws like the NRL.

    C. OECD: An organization promoting economic cooperation and policy coordination; it does not enact binding environmental laws such as the NRL.

    D. FAO: A UN agency focused on hunger and agriculture; it does not enact regional laws like the NRL.

  7. Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain…

    Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    The Constitution outlines specific roles where the Governor can act at his/her own discretion, but it does not allow the President to unilaterally intervene in State legislation without the Governor's involvement.

    Statement I: Correct * The Governor can act in discretion in certain cases (e.g., reserving a bill for the President under Article 200, or appointing a CM in a hung assembly). * Article 163(2) makes the Governor's discretion final in such matters.

    Statement II: Incorrect * The President cannot suo motu reserve a State bill. Only the Governor can do this under Article 200.

  8. Sedition has become my religion’ was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the…

    Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

    1. Athe Champaran Satyagraha
    2. Bpublicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
    3. Cattending the Second Round Table Conference in London
    4. Dthe launch of the Quit India Movement
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Mahatma Gandhi made the famous statement "Sedition has become my religion" during the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.

    In his writings in *Young India* (specifically in March 1930) and his speeches surrounding the Dandi March, Gandhi articulated that when a government becomes exploitative and unjust—exemplified by the salt tax—non-violent defiance or "sedition" against such a regime becomes a moral and religious duty. He used this phrase to emphasize that his commitment to overthrowing British rule through non-violent civil disobedience was not just a political strategy but a spiritual necessity. While he had spoken about the "passion" for sedition during his 1922 trial, the specific declaration of it being his "religion" is most prominently associated with the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement and the violation of the Salt Law.

  9. Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held…

    Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Statement I is Incorrect: The 45th Chess Olympiad (2024) is a team-based tournament played in a Swiss-system format, not an individual knockout competition with a "final" match. While India won the gold medal and Gukesh Dommaraju won individual gold on Board 1, he did not defeat Ian Nepomniachtchi in a final; Russian teams were suspended from the 2024 Olympiad by FIDE.

    Statement II is Correct: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, became the world's youngest Grandmaster in June 2021 at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.

  10. Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable…

    Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Majorana 1 chip is linked to quantum computing and deep learning is part of machine learning, but AWS did not introduce the Majorana 1 chip.

    * I. Majorana 1 chip – Expected to advance quantum computing. * II. AWS introducing Majorana 1 – Incorrect, it's a Microsoft project. * III. Deep learning – A subset of machine learning.

    Only statements I and III are correct.

  11. Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than…

    Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and III only
    2. BII only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    India's CO₂ emissions come mainly from fuel combustion, especially electricity generation, and per capita emissions are higher than 0.5 tonnes.

    Statement I is incorrect: * India's per capita CO₂ emissions are around 1.9-2.0 tonnes, higher than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

    Statement II is correct: * India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific for total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China.

    Statement III is correct: * Electricity and heat production (mainly coal-based) is the largest source of India's CO₂ emissions.

    So, the correct answer is: C

  12. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for…

    Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Correct *RGM aims to conserve indigenous breeds, benefiting small farmers and landless labourers by improving animal productivity.*

    Statement II: Correct *Launched in December 2014, the mission promotes scientific breeding, genetic upgradation, and conservation of indigenous breeds.*

    Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements I and II are correct.

  13. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23: I. India is the…

    Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Correct India produces about 80% of the world's turmeric and exports around 65% globally.

    Statement II: Correct India grows over 30 turmeric varieties like Alleppey Finger, Erode, Sangli, Salem, Nizamabad, and Rajapore.

    Statement III: Correct Major producing states include Telangana (largest), Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.

    Correct Answer: (D) All statements are correct.

  14. Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia…

    Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

    1. AAll the five
    2. BOnly four
    3. COnly three
    4. DOnly two
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Based on the distribution of official time zones including overseas territories, we can determine:

    United Kingdom – More than four (Total 9 Time Zones) Denmark – More than four (At least 5 Time Zones) New Zealand – More than four (Total 5 Time Zones) Australia – More than four (Total 8-9 Time Zones) Brazil – Exactly four

    Therefore, four out of the five countries have more than four time zones.

  15. Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP)…

    Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are **not** correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I: Incorrect The National Rail Plan targets 2030 for a future-ready railway, not 2028.

    Statement II: Incorrect Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system developed under 'Make in India', not with Germany.

    Statement III: Correct Kavach uses RFID tags on tracks in station sections to track train location and speed continuously.

    Therefore, Statements I and II are incorrect, and Statement III is correct.

  16. Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.…

    Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Incorrect *Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in all states; states with population under 20 lakhs may skip this tier.*

    Statement II: Incorrect *Minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30.*

    Statement III: Incorrect *State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.*

    Correct Answer: All three statements are incorrect.

  17. Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Correct Chalk is permeable (water passes easily); clay is impermeable (water passes poorly).

    Statement II: Correct Chalk is porous, with many small holes that hold water, making it permeable.

    Statement III: Incorrect Clay is porous but with very tiny pores that restrict water flow; it is impermeable but not non-porous.

    Correct Answer: Only Statements I and II are correct; Statement II explains Statement I.

  18. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by…

    The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

    1. ADelhi
    2. BGwalior
    3. CUjjain
    4. DLahore
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established in Lahore in 1901 by Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar, a pioneer of Hindustani classical music. His aim was to democratize music education, taking it out of the gharana tradition (restricted to hereditary families) and making it accessible to the general public through institutional training. Later, branches were opened in other cities like Bombay and Delhi, greatly influencing the spread of classical music in modern India.

  19. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: | Organization |…

    With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: | Organization | Some of its Functions | It Works Under | |--------------------|------------------------|--------------------------------| | Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs | | Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance | | Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance | In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Row 1 is Incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is responsible for investigating offences of money laundering and enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. However, it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

    Row 2 is Correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. It is responsible for the enforcement of the Customs Act, 1962, and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

    Row 3 is Incorrect: While the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management operates under the Department of Revenue, its primary role is the implementation and maintenance of IT systems for the CBIC. The specific function of carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers in policy formulation and nabbing tax evaders is the mandate of the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), which was specifically established for this analytical purpose.

    Note: After the release of the UPSC ANSWER KEY 2025, we have updated it to A.

  20. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of…

    Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CI, III, IV and V
    4. DI, II and V
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Statement I is Correct: The RBI earns a significant portion of its income from interest on Government Securities (G-Secs) held in its portfolio and through Open Market Operations (OMO).

    Statement II is Correct: Income is generated from the deployment of foreign exchange reserves in foreign sovereign bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks, as well as from foreign exchange trading.

    Statement III is Incorrect: The RBI is not a pension fund manager. Pension funds are regulated by PFRDA and managed by specific fund managers.

    Statement IV is Incorrect: The RBI is the "Banker to Banks." It does not lend directly to private individuals or corporate entities; it provides liquidity to commercial banks and the government.

    Statement V is Incorrect: While "Seigniorage" is an economic concept of profit, in accounting terms, currency notes are liabilities. The actual income recorded in the RBI's profit and loss account comes from the interest earned on the assets (G-Secs/Gold) held to back that currency, not the printing process itself.

    Note: After the release of the UPSC ANSWER KEY 2025, we have updated the correct answer to A.

  21. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through…

    A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

    1. A₹48,500 crores
    2. B₹51,500 crores
    3. C₹58,500 crores
    4. DNone of the above
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement, while the Primary Deficit shows how much the government is borrowing excluding interest payments on past debt.

    Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

    Given:

    * Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores * Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores * Non-debt capital receipts are already factored into the fiscal deficit, so no need to adjust further.

    Calculation: Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 − ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores

  22. Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a…

    Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) lie close to each other geographically but are separated by the International Date Line, leading to a significant difference in calendar dates despite similar times of day.

    Statement I: Correct Due to the International Date Line, Anadyr and Nome can have the same time of day but different dates.

    Statement II: Incorrect When it's Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday—Anadyr is ahead of Nome by almost 21 hours.

  23. Consider the following pairs: Region – Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy :…

    Consider the following pairs: Region – Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    The question tests knowledge of European geography, particularly the correct country associations of famous regions.

    I. Mallorca : Italy * Mallorca is part of Spain, not Italy.

    II. Normandy : Spain * Normandy is a region in France, not Spain.

    III. Sardinia : France * Sardinia belongs to Italy, not France.

  24. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Activated carbon is widely used to clean pollutants because of its unique properties and sustainable production methods.

    Statement I: Correct. Activated carbon effectively removes pollutants from industrial effluents due to its high adsorption capacity. It's commonly used in water treatment and pollution control. Statement II: Correct. This is because activated carbon has an extremely large surface area, created by its porous structure, allowing it to trap heavy metals and other contaminants efficiently. Statement III: Correct. Moreover, activated carbon can be produced easily and cost-effectively from carbon-rich wastes like coconut shells, rice husks, and other agricultural residues, making it an eco-friendly option.

    Thus, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and together they explain why Statement I is true.

  25. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission…

    Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. CI, III and IV
    4. DII, III and IV
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The 15th Finance Commission made recommendations to promote better fiscal discipline, education, and agriculture reforms, while adjusting tax devolution among states.

    Statement I: Correct 4,800 crores were recommended (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states for improving educational outcomes.

    Statement II: Incorrect The Commission recommended 41% of Union taxes to be shared with states, not 45%.

    Statement III: Correct It proposed a ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive for states to implement agricultural reforms.

    Statement IV: Correct It reintroduced the 'tax effort' criterion, rewarding states that better mobilize revenue in relation to their GSDP.

  26. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura…

    Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

    1. AC. R. Das
    2. BMadan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
    3. CDr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
    4. DM. A. Jinnah
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    After the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, many people were arrested and faced severe punishment, including death sentences. Legal intervention helped reduce this.

    B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant – Correct

    * Madan Mohan Malaviya and his son Krishna Kant provided legal defence to the accused. * Their efforts led to major sentence reductions, saving many from execution.

  27. Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India – Stated under I.…

    Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India – Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Each of these constitutional provisions is accurately linked to its correct part within the Constitution of India.

    Pair I: Directive Principles of State Policy – Correct * Article 50 mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

    Pair II: Fundamental Duties – Correct * Article 51A(f) states that citizens must value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

    Pair III: Fundamental Rights – Correct * Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous work such as factories or mines.

  28. Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for…

    Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Statement I: Incorrect Regulation of minor minerals is mainly a State subject under the MMDR Act, 1957. States have the authority to make rules for extraction concessions.

    Statement II: Correct The Central Government notifies which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act.

    Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.

  29. Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People,…

    Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Statement I: Correct The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after dissolution until just before the new House meets, ensuring continuity (Article 94).

    Statement II: Incorrect No constitutional mandate requires the Speaker to resign from their political party; this is only a convention for impartiality.

    Statement III: Correct The Speaker can be removed by a majority resolution with at least 14 days' prior notice (Article 94).

    Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

  30. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

    Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

    1. Asilver iodide and potassium iodide
    2. Bsilver nitrate and potassium iodide
    3. Csilver iodide and potassium nitrate
    4. Dsilver nitrate and potassium chloride
    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    A. silver iodide and potassium iodide: True Both are used in cloud seeding because their crystalline structures help form ice nuclei, inducing rainfall.

    B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide: False Silver nitrate is not used for artificial rainmaking.

    C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate: False Potassium nitrate is not used in cloud seeding.

    D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride: False Neither chemical is used in artificial rainmaking.

    Therefore, option A is correct.

Mains Q&A 80

  1. Ashok is Divisional Commissioner of one of the border districts of the North East State. A few years back, Military has taken over the neighbouring country after overthrowing the elected civil government. Civil war situation is prevailing in the country especially in last two years. However, internal situation further deteriorated due to rebel groups taking over control of certain populated areas near own border. Due to intense fight between military and rebel groups, civilian casualties has increased manifold in recent past. In the meantime, in one night Ashok got information from the local police guarding the border check post that there are about 200-250 people mainly women and children trying to cross over to our side of the border. There are also about 10 soldiers with their weapons in military uniform part of this group who wants to cross over. Women and Children are also crying and begging for help. A few of them are injured and bleeding profusely need immediate medical care. Ashok tried to contact Home Secretary of the State but failed to do so due to poor connectivity mainly due to inclement weather. (a) What are the options available with Ashok to cope with the situation? (b) What are the ethical and legal dilemmas being faced by Ashok? (c) Which of the options, do you think would be more appropriate for Ashok to adopt and why? (d) In the present situation, what are the extra precautionary measures to be taken by the Border Guarding Police in dealing with soldiers in uniform?

  2. Rajesh is a Group A officer with nine years of service. He is posted as Administrative Officer in an Oil Public Sector undertaking. As an Administrative Officer he is responsible for managing and coordinating various administrative tasks to ensure smooth functioning of office. He also manages office supplies, equipment etc. Rajesh is now sufficient senior and is expecting his next promotion in JAG (Junior Administrative Grade) in the next one or two years. He knows that promotion is based on examination of ACRs/Performance Appraisal of last few years (5 years or so) of an officer by a DPC (Departmental Promotion Committee) and an officer lacking requisite grading of ACRs may not be found fit for promotion. Consequences of losing promotion may entail financial and reputational loss and set-back for career progression. Though he also puts his best efforts in official discharge of his duties, yet he is unsure of assessment by his superior officer. He is now putting extra efforts so that he gets thumping report at the end of financial year. As Administrative Officer, Rajesh is regularly interacting with his immediate boss, who is his reporting officer for writing his ACR. One day he calls Rajesh and wants him to buy computer-related stationery on priority from a particular vendor. Rajesh instructs his office to initiate action for procuring these items. During the day, the dealing Assistant brings an estimate of Rupees Thirty Five Lakhs covering all stationery items from the same vendor. It is noticed that as per delegated financial powers, as provided in the GFR (General Financial Rules) as applicable in that Organisation, expenditure for office items exceeding Rupees Thirty Lakhs requires sanction of the next higher authority (boss in the present case). Rajesh knows that immediate superior would expect all these purchases should be done at his level and may not appreciate such lack of initiative on his part. During discussions with office, he learns that common practice of splitting of expenditure (where large order is divided into a series of smaller ones) is followed to avoid obtaining sanction from higher authority. This practice is against the rules and may come to the adverse notice of Audit. Rajesh is perturbed. He is unsure of taking decision in the matter. (a) What are the options available with Rajesh in the above situation? (b) What are the ethical issues involved in this case? (c) Which would be the most appropriate option for Rajesh and why?

  3. Subash is Secretary, PWD in the State Government. He is a senior officer, known for his competence, integrity and dedication to work. He enjoys the trust and confidence of Minister Incharge of PWD and Programme Implementation. As a part of his job profile, he is responsible for policy formulation, execution of projects relating to infrastructure initiatives in the State. Besides, he oversees the technical and administrative aspects relating to planning, designing and construction etc. Subash’s Minister is an important Minister in the state and significant growth in urban infrastructure development and road network has been registered during his tenure. He is very keen for launching of ambitious road construction project in the near future. Subash is in regular touch with the Minister and is working various modalities of road construction project. Regular meetings, interactions and presentations are made by him to the Minister before a formal public announcement of the project is made by the Minister. Subash’s only son Vikas is in real estate business. His son from his own sources is aware that a mega road project is on the anvil and announcement in this regard is expected anytime. He is very keen to know from his father the exact location of the upcoming project. He knows that there would be quantum jump in the prices of land in the vicinity. Buying land at this stage at cheaper prices would pay him rich dividends. He is pleading with him (his father) day in and day out to share him location of the proposed project. He assured him that he would handle the matter discretely as it would not attract any adverse notice as he in the normal course, keeps on buying land as a part of his business. He feels pressurised because of constant pleadings by his son. Another significant aspect of the matter pertained to the extra/undue interest in the above project by the Minister PWD. His nephew was also having big infrastructure project company. In fact, the Minister has also introduced his nephew to him and indicated to him to take care of his nephew’s business interest in the forthcoming project. The Minister encouraged him to act fast in the matter as early announcement and execution of mega road project would enhance his status in the party and public life. In the above backdrop, Subash is in a fix as to the future course of action. (a) Discuss the ethical issues involved in the case. (b) Critically examine the options available to Subash in the above situation. (c) Which of the above would be most appropriate and why?

  4. In line with the Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Indian Constitution, the government has a constitutional obligation to ensure basic needs – “Roti, Kapda aur Makan (Food, Clothes and Shelter)” – for the under-privileged. Pursuing this mandate, the district administration proposed clearing a portion of forest land to develop housing for the homeless and economically weaker sections of the society. The proposed land, however, is an ecologically sensitive zone densely populated with age-old trees, medicinal plants and vital biodiversity. Besides, these forests help to regulate micro-climate and rainfalls; provide habitat for wildlife, support soil fertility and prevent land/soil erosion and sustain livelihoods of tribal and nomadic communities. Inspite of the ecological and social costs, the administration argues in favour of the said proposal by highlighting that this very initiative addresses fundamental human rights as a critical welfare priority. Besides, it fulfils the government’s duty to uplift and empower the poor through inclusive housing development. Further, these forest areas have become unsafe due to wild-animal threats and recurring human-wild life conflicts. Lastly, clearing forest-zones may help to curb anti-social elements allegedly using these areas as hideouts, thereby enhancing law and order. (a) Can deforestation be ethically justified in the pursuit of social welfare objectives like, housing for the homeless? (b) What are the socio-economic, administrative and ethical challenges in balancing environmental conservation with human development? (c) What substantial alternatives or policy interventions can be proposed to ensure that both environmental integrity and human dignity are protected?

  5. Vijay was Deputy Commissioner of remote district of Hilly Northern State of the country for the last two years. In the month of August heavy rains lashed the complete state followed by cloud burst in the upper reaches of the said district. The damage was very heavy in the complete state especially in the affected district. The complete road network and telecommunication were disrupted and the buildings were damaged extensively. People’s houses have been destroyed and they were forced to stay in open. More than 200 people have been killed and about 5000 were badly injured. The Civil Administration under Vijay got activated and started conducting rescue and relief operations. Temporary shelter camps and hospitals were established to provide shelter and medical facilities to the homeless and injured people. Helicopter services were pressed in, for evacuating sick and old people from remote areas. Vijay got a message from his hometown in Kerala that his mother was seriously sick. After two days Vijay received the unfortunate message that his mother has expired. Vijay has no close relative except one elder sister who was US citizen and staying there for last several years. In the meantime, the situation in the affected district deteriorated further due to resumption of heavy rains after a gap of five days. At the same time, continuous messages were coming on his mobile from his hometown to reach at the earliest for performing last rites of his mother. (a) What are the options available with Vijay? (b) What are the ethical dilemma being faced by Vijay? (c) Critically evaluate and examine each of these options identified by Vijay. (d) Which of the options, do you think, would be most appropriate for Vijay to adopt and why?

  6. (a) It is said that for an ethical work culture, there must be code of ethics in place in every organisation. To ensure value-based and compliance-based work culture, what suitable measures would you adopt in your work place? (b) India is an emerging economic power of the world as it has recently secured the status of fourth largest economy of the world as per IMF projection. However, it has been observed that in some sectors, allocated funds remain either under-utilised or misutilised. What specific measures would you recommend for ensuring accountability in this regard to stop leakages and gaining the status of third largest economy of the world in near future?

  7. (a) In the present digital age, social media has revolutionised our way of communication and interaction. However, it has raised several ethical issues and challenges. Describe the key ethical dilemmas in this regard. (b) “Constitutional morality is not a natural sentiment but a product of civil education and adherance of the rule of law.” Examine the significance of constitutional morality for public servant highlighting the role in promoting good governance and ensuring accountability in public administration.