2018

All of the listed factors - birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing - can contribute to the spread of plant diseases

Statement 1 is correct: Birds can act as vectors, carrying and spreading plant pathogens from one location to another through their feathers, feet, or droppings.

Statement 2 is correct: Dust and soil particles blown by the wind can carry and spread plant diseases, especially fungal spores and bacterial cells.

Statement 3 is correct: Rain can splash and disperse plant pathogens, such as fungi and bacteria, from the soil or infected plant parts to uninfected plants.

Statement 4 is correct: Wind can transport and spread airborne plant pathogens, such as fungal spores and bacterial cells, over long distances.

Statement 1 is correct: The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. The value of an MLA's vote is based on the population of their state relative to the number of MLAs in the state assembly. States with larger populations have a higher value per MLA vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Both MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have the same value for their vote in the presidential election.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c) 1 only.

The Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Arunachal Pradesh, is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is contiguous with the Pakke Tiger Reserve. It is known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests, making it a critical habitat for various wildlife species. The Bhareli (Pakke) and Bamadi rivers flow through the sanctuary, supporting its diverse ecosystem. Several indigenous tribes, including the Nyishi and Apatani, reside in the region, coexisting with the forest and its resources.


- Santhals were the agricultural people settled in Rajmahal Hills of Jharkhand. - They are native to the Indian states of predominantly Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.

Creation of Santhal Paraganas: A separate administrative unit called the Santhal Paraganas was established in 1855. This aimed to isolate the Santhal community from the rest of the population and potentially prevent further uprisings.

Restriction on Land Transfer: The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was passed in 1876. This act made it illegal for a Santhal to sell or transfer land to a non-Santhal. This aimed to protect the Santhal community's economic interests and prevent further exploitation by outsiders called 'Dikus'.

Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is responsible for PMKVY, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is Correct. PMKVY goes beyond technical skills training and incorporates soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy to make participants more employable.

Statement 3 is Correct. A core objective of PMKVY is to bridge the gap between the skills of the unregulated workforce and industry requirements by aligning them with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). This standardization helps ensure a minimum level of competency and improves employment opportunities.

Statement 1 is correct: According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity can bend light. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.

Statement 2 is correct: The General Theory of Relativity led to the prediction of an expanding universe, which has been confirmed by observational evidence.

Statement 3 is correct: According to the General Theory of Relativity, the presence of matter and energy warps the fabric of space and time around it, which is the underlying cause of the gravitational force.

So, all three statements are correct.

Incorrect (1) Most of Thyagaraja's kritis (compositions) are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna.

Correct (2) Tyagaraja is credited with creating several new ragas (melodic scales) in Carnatic music.

Incorrect (3) Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were not contemporaries. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century.

Correct (4) Annamacharya's kirtanas (devotional songs) are indeed known for praising Lord Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the RTE Act, the minimum qualification for teachers is set by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the state council.

Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act mandates that candidates must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to qualify for teaching primary classes. The NCTE sets the guidelines for conducting this test.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2019-20, approximately 67% of teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, while only around 33% are government-run.

Hence, the correct answer is option (b) 2 only.

Statement 1 is Correct: The Charter Act of 1813 was the first official measure by the British Parliament to sanction an annual sum of one lakh rupees for the promotion of education and modern sciences in India. Statement 2 is Correct: The General Committee of Public Instruction was established in 1823 to implement the educational grant of 1813 and to guide the educational policy of the East India Company. Statement 3 is Correct: The controversy between Orientalists (who favored traditional Indian learning) and Anglicists (who favored Western education in English) led to the adoption of English as the medium of instruction via Lord Macaulay's Minute of 1835.

3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. It is used in a wide range of industries and has various applications.

It can be used to create intricate and customized shapes in confectionery items like chocolates, candies, and other desserts.

It has been used to create customized bionic ears for people with hearing impairments.

It is used in the automotive industry for rapid prototyping, manufacturing of customized parts, and even some production of vehicle components.

It is used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides.

It can be used to create specialized components and parts for data processing technologies, such as computer hardware.

Therefore, all the five statements are correct.

Statement 1 is Correct: Cereal grains that are hulled (meaning the outer husk is removed, such as shelled or rolled grains) are exempted from GST under HSN code 1104, provided they are not sold in branded unit containers. This exemption ensures that basic food staples remain affordable.

Statement 2 is Correct: According to GST Council notifications (HSN 0407), birds' eggs in shell, whether fresh, preserved, or cooked, are specifically exempted from GST. This classification keeps basic protein sources outside the tax net.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: While fresh, chilled, or frozen fish is exempt from GST, fish that has been processed and canned (HSN 1604) is considered a value-added product. Such processed items are subject to GST (typically at a rate of 5%).

Statement 4 is Correct: Newspapers, journals, and periodicals (HSN 4902) are exempt from GST. The law explicitly states that this exemption applies whether or not they contain advertising material, ensuring the free and affordable flow of information.

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2013, NFSA was enacted to provide food security to 67% of the population in the form of highly subsidized food grains at Rs. 2 and 3 per Kg for wheat and rice respectively. Beneficiaries are identified using Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC) methodology so even non-BPL will also benefit.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the NFSA, to issue ration cards the eldest woman of a household aged 18 years or above would be considered as head. Hence, this statement is correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious take home ration of 600 Calories and a maternity benefit of at least Rs 6,000 for six months, says the official act.

The correct chronological sequence is determined by the following historical events:

1. Air India Nationalisation (1953): Air India was nationalised following the enactment of the Air Corporations Act, 1953. The Government of India acquired a majority stake in the airline from the Tata Group, establishing it as the national carrier.

2. Renaming of Imperial Bank to SBI (1955): Based on the recommendations of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee (Gorewala Committee), the State Bank of India Act was passed. On July 1, 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was renamed the State Bank of India (SBI).

3. First Communist Government in a State (1957): In the 1957 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections, the Communist Party of India (CPI) won a majority. E.M.S. Namboodiripad formed the government, marking the first time a Communist party was democratically elected to power in an Indian state.

4. Goa becoming part of India (1961): Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule on December 19, 1961, through 'Operation Vijay'. Following its liberation, Goa (along with Daman and Diu) was incorporated into India as a Union Territory by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. It attained full statehood much later, on May 30, 1987.

Chronological Order: 3 (1953) - 2 (1955) - 1 (1957) - 4 (1961).

* Aral Sea: The Aral Sea was once one of the world's largest inland lakes, but due to extensive water diversion for irrigation projects, particularly from the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, it has shrunk by over 75% since the 1960s. This has led to severe environmental, economic, and social consequences, including increased salinity, loss of marine life, and desertification.


* Black Sea: While the Black Sea faces environmental challenges such as pollution, biodiversity loss, and reduced oxygen levels in deep waters, it has not experienced significant drying like the Aral Sea.

* Lake Baikal: Lake Baikal in Russia is the deepest and oldest freshwater lake in the world, containing about 20% of the world's unfrozen freshwater supply. Although it experiences natural fluctuations in water levels, it has not undergone severe drying like the Aral Sea.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was Mahatma Gandhi's first experiment with Satyagraha in India. It was launched to address the grievances of peasants in Bihar who were forced by European planters under the 'Tinkathia system' to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their land. The most significant aspect of this movement was the joining of peasant unrest to the Indian National Movement. This marked a fundamental shift in the struggle for independence, transitioning it from an urban, middle-class intellectual movement to a mass-based movement that included the rural peasantry. While the movement was localized, its success provided Gandhi with a national platform and demonstrated the efficacy of non-violent resistance.

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat launched the Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 to encourage individuals, businesses, and governments to take voluntary action towards climate neutrality.

In 2016, the Secretariat introduced a new pillar under its "Momentum for Change" initiative, focusing on Climate Neutral Now as part of broader efforts to highlight and promote successful climate action worldwide.

Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to: 1. Measure their climate footprint (greenhouse gas emissions). 2. Reduce emissions as much as possible through sustainable practices and efficiency improvements. 3. Offset unavoidable emissions using UN-certified emission reductions (CERs).

This initiative aligns with global efforts to meet the Paris Agreement goals, fostering greater accountability and proactive engagement in combating climate change.

The scenario described involves various devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicating with each other and with the user, and automatically performing tasks based on certain triggers. This is characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT).


Option B is correct: Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

Option A is incorrect: Border Gateway Protocol is a protocol used to exchange routing information across the internet and is not relevant to the scenario described.

Option C is incorrect: Internet Protocol is a set of rules for sending and receiving messages at the Internet address level, but it doesn't cover the broad range of device intercommunication described in the scenario.

Option D is incorrect: A Virtual Private Network is a technology for using the internet or another intermediate network to connect computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible, which also doesn't fit the scenario.

Yemen and South Sudan faced severe humanitarian crises and famine conditions around 2017-2018 due to prolonged armed conflicts. In Yemen, the Saudi-led military intervention against Houthi rebels, coupled with air and naval blockades, severely restricted the import of food and medicine, leading to widespread starvation. In South Sudan, a civil war that began in 2013 between government and opposition forces displaced millions and disrupted agricultural production, resulting in the United Nations formally declaring a famine in parts of the country in early 2017.

Statement 1 is correct. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR): This is a crucial regulatory tool used by central banks to ensure banks have sufficient capital reserves to absorb potential financial losses. It acts as a buffer to protect depositors' funds in case of loan defaults or other financial risks.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. CAR is not decided by individual banks. The CAR is mandated and regulated by the central bank of a country, in India's case, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI sets a minimum CAR that all banks operating in the country must adhere to. This ensures a level playing field and safeguards the financial system's stability.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for 22 mandated crops and the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Areca nut is a plantation crop and is not included in the list of 22 mandated crops for which MSP is announced.

Statement 2 is Correct: Barley is one of the seven cereals (Paddy, Wheat, Maize, Sorghum, Pearl millet, Barley, and Finger millet) for which MSP is announced.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Coffee is a plantation/beverage crop and does not fall under the MSP regime.

Statement 4 is Correct: Finger millet (also known as Ragi) is a cereal crop included in the mandated list for MSP.

Statement 5 is Correct: Groundnut is one of the seven oilseeds (Groundnut, Rapeseed-Mustard, Soyabean, Sesamum, Sunflower, Safflower, and Nigerseed) covered under MSP.

Statement 6 is Correct: Sesamum is an oilseed crop for which the government officially announces MSP.

Statement 7 is Incorrect: Turmeric is a spice and is not among the 22 mandated crops for which MSP is announced by the CCEA.

Capital Formation: This refers to the addition to the existing stock of physical and human capital in an economy.

High Savings: High savings provide the necessary funds for investment. However, savings alone do not guarantee growth; the efficiency with which those savings are converted into output is crucial.

Capital-Output Ratio (COR): This ratio indicates the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output. - A low ratio means capital is efficient. - A high ratio means capital is inefficient (more capital is needed for the same amount of output).

Why (D) is correct: Even if an economy saves and invests heavily (capital formation), if the Capital-Output Ratio is high, the resulting increase in output (GDP) will be low. This often happens due to technological backwardness, poor infrastructure, or inefficient management of resources.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and services both Central (Government of India) and State Government securities. RBI acts as a debt manager for both levels of government under agreements with the states.

Statement 2 is correct: Treasury Bills (T-bills) are issued only by the Government of India, not by the State Governments. States instead issue State Development Loans (SDLs) for their borrowing needs.

Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Bills are zero-coupon instruments — they are issued at a discount to the par (face) value and redeemed at par on maturity. The difference represents the interest earned.

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The term 'capital' in this context usually refers to physical or financial capital (like machinery or money), whereas human capital formation specifically focuses on the qualitative development of human beings. Statement 2 is Correct: Human capital formation is defined as the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education, and experience essential for the economic development of a country. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Tangible wealth refers to physical assets such as land, buildings, and gold. Human capital is an intangible asset and does not include the accumulation of physical goods. Statement 4 is Correct: Human capital is considered a form of intangible wealth because it represents the stock of knowledge, skills, and health embodied in the population, which lacks physical substance but has significant economic value.

Economic Growth vs. Economic Development: An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP signifies economic growth, which means the overall production of goods and services in a country is expanding.

Economic development is a broader concept that goes beyond just increasing production. It encompasses factors like 1. Improved living standards for citizens 2. Reduction in poverty and unemployment 3. Increased literacy and education levels 4. Improved healthcare and infrastructure

If poverty and unemployment are increasing even with economic growth (GNP increase), it suggests the benefits of growth are not being shared widely. This indicates a lack of true economic development.

Opportunity cost: It refers to the potential benefit an individual or entity gives up when choosing one option over another. In simpler terms, it's what you miss out on by making a specific choice.

Free commodity by the government: When the government provides a good or service for free, it doesn't eliminate the opportunity cost. The resources used to provide that free good could have been used for something else.

Taxpayers bear the burden: The resources for "free" public goods come from somewhere, usually taxpayer money. So, the opportunity cost isn't eliminated, it's simply shifted. Taxpayers give up the potential use of those resources in exchange for a free good or service.

In essence, while the individual consumer might not directly pay for the good, the cost is still there and borne by the tax-paying public.

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy, and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is not correct: From a consumer point of view, three levels of authentication are required in this app.

1. The device ID and mobile number, 2. The bank account which you are linking to this app, and 3. The UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction.

There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-in debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.

Statement 1 is correct. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation aimed to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability.

Statement 2 is not correct. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a percentage of GDP, States liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain the Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)).

Statement 1 is Correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act, of 2006 did supersede the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, of 1954. It established a more comprehensive framework for ensuring food safety and regulating the food industry in India.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body, not under the direct control of the Director General of Health Services. While the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare oversees FSSAI, it functions independently with its own governing board and chairperson.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee levied on merchants by payment processors for accepting debit and credit card transactions. It's typically a percentage of the transaction value. So, when a customer uses a debit card at a store, the store pays a fee to the bank that processes the transaction. Hence, option C is the correct answer.


The Committee on Subordinate Legislation (CSL) is specifically tasked with scrutinizing and reporting on the exercise of delegated powers by the executive branch. They ensure the government is acting within the legal boundaries set by Parliament when creating rules, regulations, etc.

Committee on Government Assurances (A) focuses on tracking the implementation of assurances, and promises made by the government in Parliament.

Rules Committee (C) deals with framing rules for the smooth functioning of the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Business Advisory Committee (D) allocates time for different kinds of legislative and other business of the House.

Therefore, only the Committee on Subordinate Legislation directly addresses the scrutiny of delegated powers.