GPSC - Gujarat PCS 2026 Answer Key and Solutions

Gujarat PCS 2026 Set A Prelims Answer Key and Detailed Solutions — Anantam IAS

GPSC Prelims 2026Set A200 questions171 GS · 29 CSAT

The full Gujarat PCS (GPSC) 2026 Prelims paper — Set A, solved. Below is a quick answer key for all 200 questions, a subject-wise breakdown, and a detailed, question-by-question solution with the correct option and a clear explanation for each. Our team has cross-checked every answer; a few items are genuinely defective and are flagged as such.

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Quick Answer Key — Set A (All 200)

Q1–50

1 · B2 · B3 · D ⚠4 · C5 · B6 · B7 · A8 · D9 · B10 · D11 · A12 · C13 · C14 · C15 · A16 · D17 · D18 · B19 · A20 · A21 · C22 · A23 · A24 · D25 · D26 · B27 · A28 · D29 · C30 · B31 · B32 · A33 · D34 · A35 · B36 · A37 · D38 · B39 · B40 · C41 · A42 · A43 · B44 · C45 · C46 · C47 · A48 · A49 · C50 · B

Q51–100

51 · D52 · A53 · D54 · A55 · B56 · D57 · D58 · C59 · C60 · A61 · B62 · D63 · B64 · D65 · B66 · A67 · C68 · B69 · B70 · A71 · B72 · B73 · D74 · B75 · C76 · C77 · B78 · B79 · C80 · B81 · A82 · A83 · A84 · B85 · A86 · B87 · A88 · B89 · B90 · C91 · D92 · C93 · A94 · B95 · B96 · A97 · A98 · C99 · A100 · C

Q101–150

101 · B102 · B103 · A104 · D105 · A106 · C107 · D108 · D109 · B110 · A111 · A112 · C113 · D114 · B115 · B116 · B117 · D118 · C119 · B120 · A121 · B122 · A123 · B124 · C125 · D126 · C127 · C128 · B129 · A130 · B131 · C132 · C133 · A134 · B135 · C136 · C137 · B138 · C139 · D140 · B141 · D142 · B143 · A144 · B145 · B146 · B147 · D148 · D149 · A150 · A

Q151–200

151 · D152 · D153 · A154 · D155 · A156 · B157 · A158 · B159 · C160 · B161 · A162 · B163 · B164 · B ⚠165 · C ⚠166 · B167 · B168 · B169 · C170 · D171 · C172 · D173 · D174 · A175 · A176 · C177 · B178 · C179 · C180 · D181 · A182 · B183 · B184 · A185 · C186 · A187 · D188 · C189 · B190 · A191 · D192 · A193 · B194 · C195 · B196 · A197 · C198 · A199 · A200 · D

⚠ = item we consider defective (no fully correct option / insufficient data) — see its solution for why.

Subject-wise Distribution

38Indian Polity

33Geography

29CSAT

28History

27Science & Technology

20Indian Economy

9International Relations

6Current Affairs

6Art and Culture

2Indian Society

2Environment

Question-by-Question Detailed Solutions

Q1HistoryBhakti Movement

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Kabir?

He was contemporary to Sultan Sikandar Lodi.
Kabir’s sermons to Sikh community are compiled in the “Sabad” epic.
They were associated with Nirgun Bhakti.
Kabir’s teachings are compiled in Sakhi, Sabad and Ramaini. These were collected by Kabir’s disciple in a book called ‘Bijak’.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 ✓
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Kabir lived during the reign of Sikandar Lodi (1488-1517), so statement 1 holds, and he belonged to the Nirgun Bhakti tradition that worshipped a formless God, which makes statement 3 right. His verses survive as Sakhi, Sabad and Ramaini, gathered into the Bijak, so statement 4 captures the correct compilation. Statement 2 is wrong because Kabir didn't deliver sermons to a "Sikh community" compiled in a "Sabad" epic, so any option carrying statement 2 fails.

Q2International RelationsShanghai Cooperation Organisation

Q2. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): India is a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.

Reason (R): The SCO focuses on regional security and economic cooperation in Eurasia.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) — Both statements are true — India became a full SCO member on 9 June 2017 (Astana summit), and the SCO does focus on regional security and economic cooperation in Eurasia. But the Reason only states the SCO's purpose; it doesn't explain why India joined as a full member. So both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A → (B).

Q3Indian PolityBasic Structure⚠ Defective

Q3. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court can invalidate a Constitutional Amendment violating Fundamental Rights even if it does not affect the Basic Structure.

Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are superior to all other constitutional provisions.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct. ✓

Answer: (D) — Defective question. The Assertion is false: after Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a constitutional amendment can be struck down only if it damages the Basic Structure — not merely because it affects a Fundamental Right. The Reason is also wrong as worded — Fundamental Rights are not 'superior to all other constitutional provisions'; Parliament can amend them under Article 368, subject only to the Basic Structure limit. With both the Assertion and the Reason false and no 'both false' option available, the item is defective; (D) is the least-wrong choice because it at least marks the Assertion as incorrect.

Q4Indian SocietyPopulation and Census

Q4. Consider the following statements:

The census year 1921 registered a negative growth rate in the demographic history of India.
The year 1921 is known as the “Demographic divide” in the demographic history of India.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — The 1911-1921 decade recorded a fall in India's population, driven mainly by the 1918-19 influenza pandemic and famines, so the 1921 census registered a negative growth rate. That same year marks the turning point after which growth turned consistently positive and rapid, which is why 1921 is called the "Year of the Great Divide" or demographic divide. Both statements are correct.

Q5HistoryRevolt of 1857

Q5. Which state/s supported the British in suppressing the Revolt of 1857?

Scindia of Gwalior
Nizam of Hyderabad
Begum of Awadh

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Scindia of Gwalior and the Nizam of Hyderabad both stayed loyal and actively helped the British crush the 1857 uprising, so 1 and 2 are correct. The Begum of Awadh, Hazrat Mahal, was a rebel leader who fought the British and put her son Birjis Qadr on the throne of Awadh, so 3 is wrong. That leaves only 1 and 2.

Q6International RelationsUnited Nations

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council:

Each permanent member has the power to veto substantive resolutions.
Procedural matters in the Security Council are subject to veto by permanent members.
A resolution requires at least nine affirmative votes to be adopted.
Non-permanent members are elected for a two-year term and are not eligible for immediate re-election.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 ✓
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) — Each of the five permanent members can veto substantive resolutions (statement 1), a resolution needs at least nine affirmative votes to pass (statement 3), and non-permanent members serve a two-year term with no immediate re-election (statement 4). Statement 2 is wrong because the veto applies only to substantive matters, not procedural ones. So 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q7Indian PolityConstitutional Amendments

Q7. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The 43rd Constitutional Amendment reversed certain provisions of the 42nd Amendment.

Reason (R): It restored the jurisdiction of the High Courts and Supreme Court.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — The 43rd Amendment (1977) rolled back several provisions the 42nd Amendment had inserted, so the Assertion is right. One of its central acts was repealing the articles that had curtailed the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts and the Supreme Court, restoring their power of judicial review, so the Reason is right too. Since that restoration is precisely how the 43rd reversed the 42nd, the Reason explains the Assertion.

Q8Indian SocietyMigration

Q8. Consider the following factors regarding the low population mobility in India before 1980 in terms of migration:

Low level of education.
Family practices and prejudice against women’s migration.
Farmers’ emotional attachment to their land.

Which of the given factor/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Low education levels kept people from learning about and acting on distant opportunities, family customs and prejudice discouraged women from migrating, and farmers' deep emotional attachment to their land held them in place. All three were genuine drags on mobility before the 1980s. So every factor listed is correct.

Q9HistoryNehru Report

Q9. In the context of the Indian freedom movement, what was recommended in the Motilal Nehru Committee Report?

Complete independence for India
Reserved seats for minorities in joint electorates
Provision of Fundamental Rights for Indians in the Constitution

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — The Nehru Report of 1928 asked for Dominion Status, not complete independence, so statement 1 is wrong. It backed joint electorates with reserved seats for minorities (statement 2) and laid out a detailed list of Fundamental Rights that later shaped the Constitution (statement 3). So only 2 and 3 are correct.

Q10Science & TechnologyDigital Public Infrastructure

Q10. Which of the following initiatives are primarily aimed at strengthening digital governance and digital public infrastructure in India?

Digital India
Aadhaar
Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Digital India is the umbrella programme for e-governance and digital service delivery, Aadhaar provides the digital identity layer, and UPI powers instant digital payments. Together they form the backbone of India's Digital Public Infrastructure. All three fit the description.

Q11HistoryConstitutional Development

Q11. Choose the option that correctly matches List-I and List-II:

List-I	List-II
a. Indian Councils Act, 1909	1. Provincial autonomy
b. Government of India Act, 1935	2. Introduction of communal electorates
c. Montagu Declaration, 1917	3. Responsible government in India
d. Government of India Act, 1858	4. Transfer of power to the Crown
e. Indian Councils Act, 1861	5. Beginning of legislative councils

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-5 ✓
(B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
(C) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4, e-5
(D) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4, e-5

Answer: (A) — The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto) brought in separate communal electorates, the Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, and the Montagu Declaration of 1917 promised responsible government. The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred power from the Company to the Crown, and the Indian Councils Act of 1861 began the legislative councils. That gives a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-5.

Q12EnvironmentNational Forest Policy

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of Forest Policy, 2018:

Controlling animal grazing in forests.
Promoting government and private partnership where forests have been destroyed.
Promoting greenbelts in cities.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(D) Only 2

Answer: (C) — Only statements 2 (public-private partnership for degraded forests) and 3 (urban green belts) are listed objectives → (C). On statement 1: regulation of grazing does appear in the 2018 draft forest policy, but in its strategy / management-plan section (working plans, community participation), not among the stated objectives — so when the question asks strictly for objectives, only 2 and 3 qualify.

Q13HistoryIndus Valley Civilization

Q13. Match the following Indus Valley Civilization sites and States correctly:

Places	States
1. Surkotada	a. Punjab
2. Ropar	b. Rajasthan
3. Rakhigarhi and Banavali	c. Gujarat
4. Kalibangan	d. Haryana

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1a, 2b, 3-c, 4-d
(B) 1c, 2a, 3-b, 4-d
(C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b ✓
(D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

Answer: (C) — Surkotada lies in Kutch in Gujarat, Ropar sits in Punjab, Rakhigarhi and Banawali are both in Haryana, and Kalibangan is in Rajasthan. Matching them gives 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b. Only option C lines all four up correctly.

Q14International RelationsBRICS

Q14. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): BRICS was formed to promote cooperation among emerging economies.

Reason (R): It includes Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as founding members.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect. ✓
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (C) — BRICS was indeed set up to deepen cooperation among major emerging economies, so the Assertion is true. The Reason is false because South Africa was not a founding member; the original 2009 grouping was BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, China), and South Africa joined only in 2010. So the Assertion is correct but the Reason is incorrect.

Q15Indian PolityBasic Structure

Q15. Which of the following have been recognised as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?

Judicial Review
Federalism
Rule of Law
Supremacy of Parliament

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 2 and 4

Answer: (A) — The Supreme Court has held judicial review, federalism and the rule of law to be part of the Basic Structure. Supremacy of Parliament is not, since the Constitution, not Parliament, is supreme in India, and parliamentary sovereignty in the British sense doesn't apply here. So only 1, 2 and 3 qualify.

Q16GeographyMineral and Energy Resources

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding petroleum:

The demand for petroleum in India is increasing at an alarming rate.
Petroleum is mostly used in transportation, industry, domestic work and agriculture sectors in India.
Improvement in transportation facilities plays an important role in saving petroleum.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — India's petroleum demand has been climbing fast on the back of rising transport and industrial use (statement 1), and petroleum is consumed across transport, industry, domestic and agricultural sectors (statement 2). Better transport efficiency cuts fuel use, so improving transport facilities does help conserve petroleum (statement 3). All three statements hold.

📖 Read more — Minerals Energy India

Q17HistoryVedic Literature

Q17. Match the following Vedas and Collections correctly:

Vedas	Collection
1. Rigveda	a. Collection of devotional songs.
2. Atharva veda	b. Collection of Sacred songs.
3. Sama veda	c. Collection on Tantra and Mantra
4. Yajur veda	d. Collection of Bali sutra

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4-c
(B) 1-c, 2-b, 3a, 4-d
(C) 1d, 2b, 3-c, 4-a
(D) 1a, 2c, 3b, 4-d ✓

Answer: (D) — The Atharvaveda holds spells and incantations, fitting the "Tantra and Mantra" collection (2-c), and the Yajurveda carries the sacrificial formulas, fitting the ritual "Bali sutra" collection (4-d). The Rigveda and Samaveda are both song collections, mapped to the devotional and sacred song entries (1-a and 3-b). That gives 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d.

Q18Current AffairsBoard of Peace (Gaza)

Q18. With reference to the recently established 'Board of Peace' concerning the Gaza conflict, consider the following statements:

The ‘Board of Peace’ is a specialized international body chaired by the United Nations (UN) Secretary-General.
India attended the inaugural meeting of the ‘Board of Peace’ in Washington D.C. as an observer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — The Board of Peace is chaired by US President Donald Trump, not the UN Secretary-General, so statement 1 is wrong. India did attend the inaugural Washington meeting in February 2026 as an observer, represented by diplomat Namgya Khampa, so statement 2 is correct. Only statement 2 stands.

📖 Read more — Israel Palestine Conflict

Q19Indian PolityJudicial Review

Q19. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): Judicial review is part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.

Reason (R): Judicial review ensures supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — Judicial review is firmly recognised as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution, so the Assertion is true. The power exists precisely so the courts can keep the Constitution supreme over ordinary parliamentary action, which is what the Reason says, so the Reason is true and explains the Assertion.

Q20GeographyClimate Change

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding climate change:

Floods and droughts are increasing in India.
There has been a sharp increase in the number of tropical cyclones in India.
Humidity levels are gradually increasing in the regions of central India.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — The standard climate-change account for India notes that floods and droughts are becoming more frequent, so statement 1 is right. There is no established sharp rise in the number of tropical cyclones, only shifts in their intensity and tracks, so statement 2 doesn't hold. A steady rise in humidity across central India isn't a documented trend either, so statement 3 fails. Only statement 1 is correct.

Q21Science & TechnologyIndia Semiconductor Mission

Q21. With reference to the 'India Semiconductor Mission' (ISM), consider the following statements:

The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is established as an independent business division within the ‘Digital India Corporation’ to build a semiconductor and display ecosystem.
The mission aims to transition India’s role from a traditional ‘consumer’ of semiconductors to a significant ‘producer’ and an integrated participant in the Global Semiconductor Value Chain.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Both statements are accurate. ISM was set up in 2021 as an independent business division within the Digital India Corporation under MeitY, with administrative and financial autonomy to build a semiconductor and display ecosystem. It explicitly aims to shift India from being a consumer of chips to a producer and an integrated part of the global semiconductor value chain, backed by the Semicon India programme.

Q22Indian PolityJudicial Review

Q22. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

Reason (R): Articles 13, 32 and 226 collectively form the constitutional basis of judicial review in India.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — The Supreme Court does have the power of judicial review, and Articles 13, 32 and 226 together supply its constitutional foundation. Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void, Article 32 lets the Supreme Court enforce those rights, and Article 226 gives the High Courts writ jurisdiction. The Reason directly explains why the power exists, so it's the correct explanation.

Q23GeographyTropical Cyclones

Q23. Consider the following statements:

Tropical cyclones form in the summer when the temperature is more than 27 degrees Celsius.
The Coriolis force is mandatory for the formation of tropical cyclones.
The Coriolis force is found to be greater in the equatorial belt.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 3

Answer: (A) — Tropical cyclones need sea-surface temperatures above about 27°C, so statement 1 holds, and the Coriolis force is essential to give the system its spin, making statement 2 correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases toward the poles, which is exactly why cyclones don't form within about 5 degrees of the equator.

Q24Indian PolityAdvisory Jurisdiction (Article 143)

Q24. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is binding on the President.

Reason (R): Constitution empowers the President to seek advisory opinion from the Supreme Court.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct. ✓

Answer: (D) — The Assertion is wrong. An advisory opinion delivered under Article 143 is not binding on the President; it carries persuasive weight but the President isn't compelled to act on it. The Reason is correct because Article 143 does empower the President to refer questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion.

Q25GeographyJet Streams

Q25. Consider the following statements:

Jet streams are strong winds blowing from west to east in the troposphere.
Jet streams are found only in the northern hemisphere.
Jet streams are stronger in winter than summer.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Jet streams are fast westerly winds in the upper troposphere, so statement 1 is correct, and they're indeed stronger in winter when the temperature gradient between the equator and poles is sharper, making statement 3 correct. Statement 2 is wrong because jet streams occur in both hemispheres, not only the northern one.

Q26HistoryBattle of Plassey

Q26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Battle of Plassey?

Battle of Plassey was won by the East India Company due to their superior military.
After the Battle of Plassey, East India Company virtually monopolised the trade and commerce of Bengal.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is wrong. The Company won Plassey in 1757 mainly through Mir Jafar's treachery and the conspiracy with Bengal's bankers, not because of any genuine military superiority. Statement 2 is correct because the victory gave the Company a virtual stranglehold over Bengal's trade and commerce, drawing on the province's revenues and dastak privileges.

Q27Current AffairsForeign Dignitary Visits 2026

Q27. Which of the following foreign dignitaries visited India in 2026?

Ursula von der Leyen: President of the European Commission
Sheikh Mohammed Bin Zayed Al Nahyan: President of the United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Emmanuel Macron: Prime Minister of France

Select the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Ursula von der Leyen visited for the EU-India Summit in January 2026 and is correctly named President of the European Commission, while Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, President of the UAE, paid an official visit on 19 January 2026, so statements 1 and 2 pair name with title correctly. Statement 3 fails on the designation: Emmanuel Macron, who visited in February 2026, is the President of France, not its Prime Minister.

Q28Indian PolityRight to Privacy

Q28. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right?

(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(B) National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) v. Union of India
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India ✓

Answer: (D) — A nine-judge bench in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) unanimously held that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right protected under Article 21. M.C. Mehta dealt with environmental and absolute-liability matters, NALSA recognised transgender rights, and Maneka Gandhi expanded the scope of Article 21 generally but did not declare privacy a fundamental right.

Q29GeographyInternational Borders of India

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding the international border of India:

The states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim share borders with Nepal.
The states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram share borders with Bangladesh.
India shares the shortest international border with Bhutan.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Only 2

Answer: (C) — Statement 1 correctly lists Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim as the five states bordering Nepal, and statement 2 correctly lists West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram as the five sharing borders with Bangladesh. Statement 3 is wrong because India's shortest international land border is with Afghanistan (around 106 km), not Bhutan, whose border runs nearly 700 km.

Q30International RelationsMultilateral Export Control Regimes

Q30. Regarding India's engagement with global nuclear regimes, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

India is a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
India is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), the Wassenaar Arrangement and the Australia Group.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is false because India has never signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty or the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty, calling both discriminatory. Statement 2 is correct: India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016, the Wassenaar Arrangement in 2017 and the Australia Group in 2018, making it a member of all three.

Q31HistoryLand Revenue Systems

Q31. Match the following Land revenue systems and Provinces in India during the British rule correctly:

Land-revenue methods	Provinces
1. Zamindari System	a. United Provinces, Central Provinces, Punjab
2. Mahalwari System	b. Bengal, Bihar, Orissa
3. Ryotwari System	c. Bombay, Madras

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c ✓
(C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Answer: (B) — The Zamindari (Permanent) Settlement applied to Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, so 1 pairs with b. The Mahalwari system covered the United Provinces, Central Provinces and Punjab, giving 2 with a. The Ryotwari system was introduced in Bombay and Madras, matching 3 with c.

📖 Read more — Permanent Settlement 1793

Q32International RelationsAct East Policy

Q32. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): In 2014, the “Look East” policy was replaced by the “Act East” policy.

Reason (R): The “Look East” policy focused on economic integration with ASEAN countries, whereas the “Act East” policy focused on ASEAN countries + Economic Integration + East Asian countries + Security Cooperation.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — India did upgrade the 1990s 'Look East' policy to 'Act East' in 2014, so the Assertion is correct. The Reason accurately captures the shift: 'Look East' was largely about economic integration with ASEAN, while 'Act East' broadened the scope to wider East Asia, added a strong security dimension and a more action-oriented engagement. Because the Reason explains exactly why the relabelling happened, it's the correct explanation.

Q33Indian PolityProcedure Established by Law vs Due Process

Q33. Consider the following statements:

The principle of ‘Procedure Established by Law’ is not mentioned in the Constitution; the Supreme Court adopted it after the Maneka Gandhi case.
The principle of ‘Due Process of Law’ is mentioned in the Constitution.
“Procedure Established by Law” ensures that the law is as it ought to be – just and reasonable, whereas Due Process is about how the law is made.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) None of the above ✓

Answer: (D) — All three statements are wrong. 'Procedure Established by Law' is expressly written into Article 21, so statement 1 misstates it as absent. 'Due Process of Law' is the American doctrine and is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution, so statement 2 is false. Statement 3 reverses the definitions: due process tests whether a law is just and reasonable, while procedure established by law only checks that a valid procedure was followed.

Q34GeographyHimalayan Ranges

Q34. Consider the following statements:

Shiwaliks were formed after all the mountain ranges of Himalayas.
Middle Himalayas are also known as Himadri.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is correct: the Shiwaliks, the outermost Himalayan range, are the youngest and were formed after the Greater and Lesser Himalayas. Statement 2 is wrong because Himadri is the name for the Greater Himalayas, not the Middle (Lesser) Himalayas, which are called Himachal.

Q35Science & TechnologyNuclear Energy / Fast Breeder Reactors

Q35. What is the unique significance of the BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited) enterprise in India's energy sector?

(A) It is responsible for the mining and milling of rare earth metals in Gujarat.
(B) It is the nodal agency for the implementation and operation of Stage-II Fast Breeder Reactors. ✓
(C) It manages the international civil nuclear cooperation agreements with the US and France.
(D) It is the research wing of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) located in Trombay.

Answer: (B) — BHAVINI was set up in 2003 as a special-purpose enterprise under the Department of Atomic Energy specifically to build and operate Stage-II Fast Breeder Reactors, starting with the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam. Rare-earth work falls under bodies like IREL, civil nuclear diplomacy is handled by the DAE and government, and the DAE's Trombay research wing is BARC, so the other options don't fit.

Q36HistoryBal Gangadhar Tilak

Q36. Consider the statements related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak:

Tilak was associated with the Home Rule League movement.
Tilak was a founder member of the Indian National Congress.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is correct because Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in 1916. Statement 2 is wrong: the Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A.O. Hume and other early leaders, and Tilak joined the movement afterwards rather than being a founding member.

Q37Current AffairsAgnipath Scheme

Q37. In the context of the Agnipath Scheme announced by the Central Government in 2022, consider the following statements:

A person appointed under the Agnipath scheme is called an Agnirakshak.
The Agnipath scheme is applicable only to the Army.
Under the Agnipath scheme, the appointment is made for a period of four years.
A person below the age of 19 years cannot apply for recruitment under the Agnipath scheme.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Only statement 3 is correct: recruits serve a four-year tenure. Statement 1 is wrong because they're called Agniveers, not Agnirakshaks. Statement 2 is wrong because the scheme applies to all three services, not the Army alone. Statement 4 is wrong because the age band is 17.5 to 21 years, so applicants below 19 are very much eligible.

Q38Indian PolityRemoval of Judges

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:

The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge is mentioned in the Constitution.
The procedure for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court is given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge is stated in the Collegium system.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is correct because Article 124 lays down the ground (proved misbehaviour or incapacity) and the broad process for removing a Supreme Court judge. Statement 2 is correct because the detailed investigation procedure is set out in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Statement 3 is wrong, since the Collegium system deals with appointments and transfers of judges, not their removal.

Q39GeographyChhota Nagpur Plateau

Q39. Consider the following statements:

The Chhota Nagpur plateau is composed mainly of Gondwana rocks.
The Damodar river flows from east to west in the Chhota Nagpur plateau.
The radial drainage pattern is observed in Chhota Nagpur plateau.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is correct because the Chhota Nagpur plateau is largely made of ancient Gondwana rocks that hold India's main coal reserves. Statement 3 is correct because the elevated plateau gives rise to a radial drainage pattern as rivers flow outward. Statement 2 is wrong: the Damodar flows generally west to east before joining the Hooghly, not east to west.

Q40Science & TechnologyPM-WANI Scheme

Q40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the PM-WANI (Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) scheme?

It aims to provide affordable high-speed internet by allowing local shopkeepers and entrepreneurs to set up public Wi-Fi hotspots without requiring a license from the Department of Telecommunications.
The architecture of the scheme involves four layers: Public Data Offices (PDOs), Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs), App Providers and a Central Registry.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Both statements are correct. PM-WANI lets local shopkeepers and entrepreneurs run public Wi-Fi hotspots without any licence or registration fee from the Department of Telecommunications, so statement 1 holds. Its architecture has exactly four players, Public Data Offices, Public Data Office Aggregators, App Providers and a Central Registry, matching statement 2.

Q41HistoryIndian Music and Cultural Figures

Q41. Arrange the following persons in chronological order:

Amir Khusro
Tansen
Thyagaraja

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1-2-3 ✓
(B) 2-1-3
(C) 1-3-2
(D) 3-1-2

Answer: (A) — Amir Khusro (1253-1325) belonged to the Delhi Sultanate era, Tansen (c.1500-1586) was a court musician of Akbar, and Thyagaraja (1767-1847) was a Carnatic composer of the 18th-19th century. The correct time order is therefore Amir Khusro, then Tansen, then Thyagaraja, matching 1-2-3.

📖 Read more — Hindustani Carnatic Music

Q42International RelationsWorld Trade Organization

Q42. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): India is a founding member of the World Trade Organization.

Reason (R): The World Trade Organization was established replacing General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — India joined the WTO on 1 January 1995, the day it was launched, so it's a founding member. The WTO came into being on that same date by replacing GATT, and the 76 GATT members (India among them) became the founding members. India's founder status flows directly from the GATT-to-WTO transition, so the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Q43Indian PolityConstitution of India – Features

Q43. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The Constitution of India has become the longest constitution in the world.

Reason (R): The chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of the American Constitution.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) — The Indian Constitution is indeed the longest written constitution in the world, and the Fundamental Rights chapter was modelled on the American Bill of Rights, so both statements are factually correct. The borrowing of Fundamental Rights from the US model has nothing to do with the document's length, which comes from its detailed federal, administrative and other provisions. The Reason doesn't explain the Assertion.

Q44GeographyIndian Drainage System – Rivers

Q44. Consider the following statements:

The Lidder is an important tributary of the Jhelum River in Kashmir.
The Hindon River is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
The Teesta River is an important tributary of the Brahmaputra River from the south.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer: (C) — The Lidder is one of the main tributaries of the Jhelum in Kashmir, and the Hindon is a tributary of the Yamuna, so the first two statements are correct. The Teesta does join the Brahmaputra, but it's a right-bank tributary entering from the north, not the south, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q45Indian EconomyDigital Literacy – PMGDISHA

Q45. In the context of the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA), consider the following statements:

The scheme’s primary goal is to make at least one person in every rural household digitally literate, specifically targeting the age group of 14 to 60 years.
To bridge the digital divide, the scheme gives priority to non-smartphone users, Antyodaya households and college drop-outs from marginalized communities.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — PMGDISHA aims to make one person per eligible rural household digitally literate, covering the 14-60 age group, so statement 1 is correct. The scheme also gives priority to non-smartphone users, Antyodaya households and college drop-outs from marginalised communities, making statement 2 correct too.

Q46HistoryBuddhism – Mahajanapadas

Q46. Which states had a relation with Gautama Buddha's life?

Avanti
Gandhara
Kosala
Magadha

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 3 and 4 ✓
(D) Only 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) — Buddha spent most of his teaching life in the eastern Gangetic plain, especially Kosala (Sravasti, where King Prasenajit was a patron) and Magadha (Rajgriha, where Bimbisara and Ajatashatru patronised him). Avanti and Gandhara lay outside his sphere of activity and aren't connected to his life, so only Kosala and Magadha qualify.

Q47Indian EconomyInternational Financial Institutions – IMF

Q47. Which of the following statements regarding the International Monetary Fund are correct?

It provides balance of payments support.
It was established under the Bretton Woods Agreement.
It is part of the World Bank Group.
India is its member.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — The IMF provides balance of payments support, was set up under the 1944 Bretton Woods Agreement, and India is a member, so statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The IMF is a separate institution and isn't part of the World Bank Group, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q48Indian PolityPanchayati Raj – 73rd Amendment

Q48. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:

Assertion (A): The Constitution of India now provides a mechanism for a regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Reason (R): Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly handicapped in the performance of their assigned duties by paucity of funds.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ✓
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) — The 73rd Amendment added the State Finance Commission mechanism under Article 243-I to ensure a regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj Institutions, so the Assertion is correct. PRIs had long been crippled by a shortage of funds, which is exactly why this funding mechanism was created, so the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Q49GeographyClimatology – El Nino

Q49. Consider the following statements:

When the temperature decreases in the South Pacific Ocean, India receives deficient rainfall.
El Nino is an important factor in the drought situation in India.
El Nino is a warm current that flows along the coast of Peru in December.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — El Nino is a major driver of drought in India, and it's a warm current that appears off the Peruvian coast around December, so statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong because India receives deficient rainfall when the eastern Pacific warms during El Nino, not when South Pacific temperatures fall.

Q50Science & TechnologyDefence – DRDO Missile Programme

Q50. Which of the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and India's missile programme are correct?

DRDO is responsible for the development of indigenous missile systems under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
The Prithvi missile is a short-range ballistic missile.
The Agni series are primarily surface-to-air missiles.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — DRDO developed indigenous missiles under the IGMDP, and the Prithvi is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Agni series are surface-to-surface ballistic missiles, not surface-to-air, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q51GeographyClimatology – El Nino

Q51. Consider the following statements about El Nino:

El Nino is a weather phenomenon that directly affects the global environment.
El Nino is related to environmental factors in the Pacific Ocean.
El Nino starts in the Atlantic Ocean and ends in the Pacific Ocean.
El Nino only affects the regularity of the monsoon.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 3 and 4 ✓

Answer: (D) — The question asks which statements are NOT correct. El Nino is a Pacific Ocean phenomenon, so statement 3 (that it starts in the Atlantic) is false, and it affects far more than just the monsoon's regularity, so statement 4 is false too. Statements 1 and 2 are accurate, which leaves 3 and 4 as the incorrect ones.

Q52Indian PolityElections – Election Expenditure

Q52. Who bears the expenditure incurred on the conduct of the Lok Sabha Elections?

(A) Central Government ✓
(B) Respective State Governments
(C) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Consolidated fund of respective state

Answer: (A) — The full expenditure on conducting Lok Sabha elections is borne by the Central Government, while the cost of Assembly elections is met by the respective State Governments. When both are held together the cost is shared. So for Lok Sabha polls, the Central Government foots the bill.

Q53GeographySoils of India – Black Soil

Q53. Consider the following features of black soil:

Black soil is very retentive of moisture.
It is highly argillaceous with a large clay factor and without gravel or coarse sand.
Black soils of uplands are of low fertility but they are darker, deeper and richer in the valleys.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Black soil is highly retentive of moisture, swelling when wet and cracking when dry. It's highly argillaceous with a large clay factor and lacks gravel or coarse sand. Black soils on uplands are of low fertility but become darker, deeper and richer in the valleys, so all three statements are correct.

Q54Science & TechnologySpace – Green Propulsion

Q54. In the context of Green Propulsion, which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the advantage(s) of using Hydroxylammonium Nitrate (HAN)-based monopropellants over traditional Hydrazine?

HAN-based fuels have a higher density and higher specific impulse, offering better performance with lower toxicity.
HAN-based fuels do not require an ignition source as they react spontaneously with the vacuum of space.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — HAN-based green propellants offer higher density and higher specific impulse than hydrazine with much lower toxicity, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because HAN monopropellants still need a catalyst and a high chamber temperature to decompose and ignite; they don't react spontaneously with the vacuum of space.

Q55CSATCalendar – Days Calculation

Q55. If today is Saturday, which day will it be on 190th day from today?

(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday ✓
(C) Monday
(D) Friday

Answer: (B) — Dividing 190 by 7 leaves a remainder of 1, since 7 times 27 is 189. So the 190th day falls one day of the week after Saturday, which is Sunday.

Q56HistoryModern India – 1971 War

Q56. Which of the following statements regarding the India-Pakistan war in 1971 is/are true?

Yahya Khan signed the instrument of surrender on behalf of Pakistan.
Chief of Indian army during this war was J.S. Arora.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Lt. Gen. A.A.K. Niazi signed the Instrument of Surrender on Pakistan's behalf, not Yahya Khan, so statement 1 is false. J.S. Aurora was the GOC-in-C of the Eastern Command who accepted the surrender, not the Chief of the Indian Army, that role belonged to General Sam Manekshaw, so statement 2 is false as worded.

Q57GeographyMountain Passes of India

Q57. Nathu La pass on the India-China border is located in which state?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Sikkim ✓

Answer: (D) — Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas connecting Sikkim with Tibet. It sits on the ancient Silk Route and serves as one of the border trade points between India and China.

Q58Indian PolityRegulatory Bodies – DGCA

Q58. Consider the following in relation to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):

It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation.
It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services.
Its headquarters are in Bengaluru.
It coordinates with the Indian Air Force for its day-to-day functions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Only 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (C) — The DGCA primarily handles safety issues in civil aviation and regulates air transport services, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Its headquarters are in New Delhi, not Bengaluru, so statement 3 is wrong, and it doesn't depend on the Indian Air Force for its day-to-day functions, so statement 4 is wrong too.

Q59GeographyCensus 2011 – Literacy

Q59. Consider the following statements with respect to literacy according to the Census of India, 2011.

A person is considered literate if he or she can read and write, with understanding, in any language.
Literacy rate is the total average percentage of population of an area at a particular time who can read and write with understanding.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — The Census defines a literate as someone aged seven and above who can read and write with understanding in any language, so statement 1 is correct. The literacy rate is the percentage of literate persons in the relevant population, which statement 2 captures, so both statements are correct.

Q60Science & TechnologySpace – Quantum Communication

Q60. With reference to ISRO's achievements in Quantum Communication, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

ISRO successfully demonstrated free-space Quantum Communication over a distance of 300 meters, including live video conferencing using quantum-key-encrypted signals.
India is the first country in the world to establish a dedicated quantum-secure link between its mainland and an orbiting satellite in Deep Space.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — ISRO demonstrated free-space Quantum Key Distribution over about 300 metres at the Space Applications Centre in Ahmedabad, including live video conferencing using quantum-key-encrypted signals, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is false because ISRO hasn't established a mainland-to-deep-space satellite quantum link, and India isn't the first country to do so.

Q61CSATBlood Relations

Q61. Based on the family photo album described, Dakshit is Sunita's:

Meera shows her friend a family photo album. Pointing to a boy, she says, “This is Dakshit and he is my grandfather’s only grandson.” Later, she shows the photos of her grandfather’s two sons, Jayesh and Vijay, and tells her that her grandfather has only two sons and no daughters. Pointing to a woman, she says, “This is my mother Sheetal, who is standing with her brother-in-law Vijay and his wife Sunita.” Meera also shows the photo of her only sister Mamta.

(A) Brother
(B) Son ✓
(C) Husband
(D) Nephew

Answer: (B) — Meera's grandfather has only two sons, Jayesh and Vijay, and no daughters. Dakshit is the grandfather's only grandson. Meera's mother Sheetal is married to Jayesh (Vijay is her brother-in-law), and their daughters are Meera and Mamta. So the only grandson Dakshit must be the child of Vijay and his wife Sunita, which makes Dakshit Sunita's son.

Q62CSATBlood Relations

Q62. Based on the family photo album described, Mamta is Vijay's:

(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Wife
(D) Niece ✓

Answer: (D) — Mamta is Meera's only sister, so both are daughters of Jayesh and Sheetal. Vijay is Jayesh's brother, which makes him Mamta's uncle. Mamta is therefore Vijay's niece.

Q63CSATBlood Relations

Q63. Based on the family photo album described, how many children are there in the third generation (to which Meera belongs)?

(A) Two
(B) Three ✓
(C) Four
(D) One

Answer: (B) — The third generation consists of the grandfather's grandchildren. Jayesh and Sheetal have two daughters, Meera and Mamta, while Vijay and Sunita have the only grandson, Dakshit. That gives three children in Meera's generation.

Q64HistoryAncient India – Science and Mathematics

Q64. Which of the following contributions of Aryabhata is/are true?

Earth rotates around a stationary Sun.
Cause of solar and lunar eclipse.
Nearly correct value of the circumference of the Earth.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Aryabhata held that the Earth rotates on its own axis while the Sun stays fixed, which explains the apparent daily motion of the sky. He gave the scientific cause of solar and lunar eclipses as shadows cast by the Moon and Earth, rejecting the Rahu-Ketu myth. His estimate of the Earth's circumference was remarkably close to the modern value, so all three statements are correct.

Q65Science & TechnologyDefence – Missiles

Q65. The first successful test of the Indian-made, helicopter-launched, short-range anti-ship missile was conducted in 2026. What is the name of that missile?

(A) Agni
(B) Naval Anti-Ship Missile (Short Range) / NASM-SR ✓
(C) BrahMos
(D) Amogh

Answer: (B) — The NASM-SR is India's first indigenously developed air-launched, short-range anti-ship cruise missile. In April 2026, DRDO and the Indian Navy carried out a maiden salvo launch from a Sea King helicopter off the Odisha coast, with both missiles striking the target. Agni is a ballistic missile and BrahMos is a long-range supersonic cruise missile, so they don't fit.

Q66Indian PolityStatutory Bodies – Competition Commission of India

Q66. The Competition Commission of India aims to establish a robust competitive environment through proactive engagement with:

Government
Industry
Consumers

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — The CCI's competition-advocacy mandate works on three fronts: engaging with the Government on policy, with Industry to encourage fair practices, and with Consumers to raise awareness of their rights. All three groups are part of its proactive engagement, so the answer covers 1, 2 and 3.

Q67GeographyPrimary Activities – Commercial Dairy Farming

Q67. Consider the following statements about commercial dairy farming.

It is a high labour intensive activity.
It is highly commercial, wherein efficient transport, refrigeration and pasteurization processes are its major facilitators.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Commercial dairy farming is highly labour intensive because it needs constant care in feeding, milking and tending animals. It's also highly commercial, and large-scale dairying became possible only with efficient transport, refrigeration and pasteurisation since milk is perishable. Both statements are correct.

📖 Read more — Types Of Farming

Q68Science & TechnologySpace Technology – Propulsion

Q68. What role does Electric Propulsion play in the modern Green Space Movement?

(A) They eliminate the need for any fuel by using the Earth's magnetic field for propulsion.
(B) They use solar energy to accelerate ions to very high speeds, providing high fuel efficiency for long-duration missions. ✓
(C) They are used exclusively for the heavy-lift liftoff phase from the Earth's surface.
(D) They prevent the formation of space junk by vaporizing defunct satellites using laser beams.

Answer: (B) — Electric (ion) propulsion uses solar-generated electricity to ionise a propellant and accelerate the ions to very high exhaust speeds. This delivers very high fuel efficiency, which makes it ideal for long-duration deep-space and station-keeping missions. It produces low thrust, so it can't be used for heavy-lift liftoff from Earth's surface.

Q69CSATTime and Work – Ration Problems

Q69. A charity kitchen has grain to serve 200 people for 40 days. If 50 people leave after 10 days, how long from now would the grain last?

(A) 30 days
(B) 40 days ✓
(C) 50 days
(D) 36 days

Answer: (B) — Total stock equals 200 x 40 = 8000 person-days. In the first 10 days, 200 people consume 200 x 10 = 2000 person-days, leaving 6000 person-days. With 50 people gone, 150 remain, so the grain lasts 6000 / 150 = 40 more days from that point.

Q70HistoryAncient India – Inscriptions

Q70. Which of the following statements regarding the Girnar rock inscriptions are correct?

Girnar rock inscription has inscriptions of Ashoka, Rudradaman and Skandagupta.
Inscriptions are in Pali language.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — The Junagadh (Girnar) rock carries inscriptions of three rulers across eras: Ashoka, the Western Satrap Rudradaman I, and the Gupta emperor Skandagupta, so statement 1 is correct. The language isn't Pali, though. Ashoka's edicts are in Prakrit while the Rudradaman and Skandagupta inscriptions are in Sanskrit, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q71Current AffairsAppointments and Personalities

Q71. Consider the following statements about Prasoon Joshi:

Recently the Government of India has appointed him as the Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
Prior to this appointment, he was working as the Chairman of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
He has written the song “Main Kabhi Batlata Nahin, Par Andhere Se Darta Hoon Main Maa…” from the film ‘Taare Zameen Par’.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Prasoon Joshi was appointed Chairman of Prasar Bharati in 2026, so statement 1 is correct. Before this he chaired the Central Board of Film Certification, not the International Film Festival of India, so statement 2 is wrong. He did write the song "Maa" (Main Kabhi Batlata Nahin…) for Taare Zameen Par, making statement 3 correct.

📖 Read more — Media Freedom Press India

Q72Indian PolityConstitution – Basic Structure Doctrine

Q72. The Basic Structure doctrine propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case is related to which of the following?

Encroachment of executive powers into the judiciary
The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
Supremacy of the Constitution
Legislative control of the executive

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) Only 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (B) — The Kesavananda Bharati (1973) verdict held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure, directly addressing Parliament's amending power (statement 2) and the supremacy of the Constitution (statement 3). It wasn't about executive encroachment on the judiciary or legislative control of the executive, so 1 and 4 don't apply.

Q73GeographyPhysical Geography – Aravalli Range

Q73. Consider the following statements regarding the Aravallis:

The region is home to important lakes and wetlands including Sambhar, Sultanpur, Pushkar, Fatehsagar and Jaisamand.
It is one of the main watersheds, separating the drainage of the Bay of Bengal, through rivers like Chambal and other tributaries of the Yamuna, from that of the Arabian Sea through the Mahi, Sabarmati, Luni and other rivers.
The mountain range is home to lead, zinc, copper, gold, tungsten and has reserves of critical minerals such as tin, graphite, molybdenum, niobium, nickel, lithium and rare earth elements (REEs), considered to be of strategic relevance for energy transition, high-technology manufacturing and national security.
Rocks in the Aravallis are highly fractured, weathered and porous, allowing rainwater to percolate deep into the ground instead of running off the surface; any disruption to this recharge system through mining, construction or deforestation poses a direct threat to regional water availability.
The Aravalli hills and range are the ‘green lungs’ of North-Western India and serve as the ecological and socio-economic backbone of the region, functioning as the primary geographical barrier separating the arid North-Western desert from the fertile Northern Indian plains.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 ✓

Answer: (D) — All five statements about the Aravallis hold up. The range hosts lakes like Sambhar and Pushkar, acts as a watershed dividing Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea drainage, holds metals and critical minerals including REEs, has fractured porous rocks that aid groundwater recharge, and serves as the 'green lungs' barrier separating the desert from the northern plains.

Q74Science & TechnologyNuclear Energy – Three-Stage Programme

Q74. What is the primary technical objective of the Second Stage of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme?

(A) To utilize natural uranium to produce electricity and Plutonium-239.
(B) To use Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) to burn Plutonium-239 and breed more fuel from a Thorium blanket. ✓
(C) To utilize India's vast Thorium reserves directly in Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWR).
(D) To focus exclusively on the enrichment of Uranium-235 for export to the global market.

Answer: (B) — The second stage uses Fast Breeder Reactors that burn the Plutonium-239 produced in stage one, while a thorium blanket around the core breeds Uranium-233 for the third stage. Option (a) describes the first stage, and direct thorium use in AHWR is the third stage.

Q75CSATStatistics – Mean Correction

Q75. The sum of 30 observations is 910. If one of the observations is taken as -25 instead of 25, find the correct mean.

(A) 30
(B) 29
(C) 32 ✓
(D) 29.5

Answer: (C) — The wrong sum is 910 because one value was recorded as -25 instead of +25, an error of 50. Adding the difference back gives the correct sum of 910 + 50 = 960. Dividing by 30 observations gives a correct mean of 960 / 30 = 32.

Q76CSATTime Zones and International Date Line

Q76. Consider the following statements:

An aircraft takes off from Papeete (Tahiti, 150 W) at 4 p.m. on Monday and lands at Port Moresby (Papua New Guinea, 150 E) at 6 a.m. on Wednesday.
The same aircraft makes a return from Port Moresby at 12 noon on Wednesday and lands at Papeete at 11 a.m. on the same day (Wednesday).

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Papeete (150 W) is at UTC-10 and Port Moresby (150 E) is at UTC+10, a 20-hour gap. For statement 1, departing Papeete 4 p.m. Monday converts to 02:00 Tuesday UTC, and arriving Port Moresby 6 a.m. Wednesday is 20:00 Tuesday UTC, giving an 18-hour flight. For statement 2, departing Port Moresby noon Wednesday is 02:00 Wednesday UTC, and arriving Papeete 11 a.m. Wednesday is 21:00 Wednesday UTC, a 19-hour flight. Both are internally consistent.

Q77GeographyHuman Geography – Migration

Q77. In the context of rural-urban migration, which one of the following is a "push factor"?

(A) Better lifestyle and high living standard in cities
(B) Lack of livelihood opportunities, backwardness and poverty in rural areas ✓
(C) Better educational opportunities in urban areas
(D) Better entertainment and sports facilities in cities

Answer: (B) — Push factors are negative conditions at the origin that drive people to leave. Lack of livelihood, backwardness and poverty in rural areas push people out. The other options are pull factors, attractions at the urban destination.

Q78Science & TechnologyDigital Governance – Bhashini

Q78. Which of the following best describes the core operational strategy of the Bhashini Mission launched by the Government of India?

(A) It is a central database designed to replace English with Hindi as the primary language for all e-governance transactions.
(B) It is an ecosystem that utilizes a crowdsourcing initiative called 'Bhasha Daan' to collect diverse language datasets to train AI models. ✓
(C) It is a hardware-based project aimed at distributing indigenous, low-cost smartphones pre-loaded with translation software to rural areas.
(D) It is a regulatory body established to monitor and censor regional language content on social media platforms.

Answer: (B) — Bhashini is India's AI-led language translation platform that builds datasets across Indian languages. Its core strategy relies on a crowdsourcing initiative called 'Bhasha Daan,' where citizens contribute language data used to train AI models for speech and translation. It doesn't replace English with Hindi, distribute hardware, or censor content.

Q79CSATCause and Effect Reasoning

Q79. In this question, two statements I and II are given. These statements may be independent causes, or effects of independent causes, or one may be the effect of the other. Read both statements and select the correct answer.

Statement I: This year College X reduced the cut-off marks to 50 from 60 for the entrance exam.

Statement II: In the last two years, the Students Union in College X has been actively negotiating with the college administration regarding the quality of food and health and hygiene standards at the college canteen.

(A) II is the cause and I is its possible effect.
(B) I is the cause and II is its possible effect.
(C) Both I and II are effects of independent causes. ✓
(D) Both I and II are independent causes.

Answer: (C) — Lowering the entrance cut-off from 60 to 50 relates to admissions, while the Students Union's two-year negotiation about canteen food and hygiene relates to campus welfare. There's no logical link making one cause the other, so neither is the effect of the other. They arise from separate, unrelated causes, making them effects of independent causes.

Q80GeographyTribes of India – Andaman and Nicobar

Q80. In the context of India, what do the terms 'Jarawa', 'Onge', 'Sentinelese' and 'Shompen' refer to?

(A) Traditional musical instruments played by the Dangi tribes.
(B) Tribal communities found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. ✓
(C) Major harvest festivals celebrated by the tribes in Nagaland.
(D) Names of traditional tribal administrative councils in Jharkhand.

Answer: (B) — Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Shompen are indigenous tribal communities of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The first three are Negrito tribes of the Andamans, while the Shompen are a Mongoloid tribe of Great Nicobar; several are particularly vulnerable tribal groups.

Q81Science & TechnologyISRO Space Programme

Q81. Consider the following statements about the Gaganyaan Mission:

Gaganyaan Mission aims at a human lunar journey.
Gaganyaan Mission aims at human space travel.
‘Hindustan Aeronautics Limited’ is directly involved in the work of the Gaganyaan Mission.
Indian astronauts have made a journey into space under the Gaganyaan Mission.

Which of the above statements is not correct?

(A) Only 1 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Gaganyaan is a human spaceflight programme to low Earth orbit, not a human lunar journey, so statement 1 is wrong. The first crewed Gaganyaan flight is planned for 2027, so no Indian astronaut has yet flown under Gaganyaan, making statement 4 wrong. HAL builds the crew module structure and other hardware, so statement 3 is correct, and statement 2 is correct. The statements that are not correct are 1 and 4.

📖 Read more — Gaganyaan

Q82Indian PolityUnion Executive

Q82. As per Article 53 of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall be vested with the

(A) President ✓
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Union Cabinet
(D) Union Cabinet Secretary

Answer: (A) — Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. In practice the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, but the formal vesting is in the President.

Q83GeographyEarth's Motions

Q83. Consider the following statements:

Venus and Uranus rotate from east to west (retrograde).
Because the Earth rotates from west to east on its own axis, we experience different seasons.
Because of the revolution of the Earth around the Sun, we experience day and night.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Venus and Uranus rotate from east to west (retrograde), so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because rotation gives us day and night, not the seasons, which come from the Earth's axial tilt combined with its revolution. Statement 3 is wrong because day and night result from rotation, not revolution. Only statement 1 holds.

Q84Indian EconomyPublic Distribution System

Q84. Food subsidy is the difference between

(A) Minimum Support Price (MSP) and the Central Issue Price (CIP)
(B) Economic Cost and the Central Issue Price (CIP) ✓
(C) Economic Cost and Minimum Support Price (MSP)
(D) Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) and Central Issue Price (CIP)

Answer: (B) — The food subsidy borne by the government is the gap between the economic cost of foodgrains to the Food Corporation of India and the Central Issue Price at which grain is released under the PDS. Economic cost covers MSP plus procurement incidentals and distribution costs, so it's wider than MSP alone. That whole cost minus the lower issue price gives the subsidy.

Q85Science & TechnologyISRO Launch Vehicles

Q85. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) are correct?

ISRO has developed both the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
PSLV is primarily used for launching heavy communication satellites into geostationary orbit.
ISRO successfully conducted the Chandrayaan-3 mission, demonstrating soft landing capability on the Moon.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — ISRO has developed both the PSLV and the GSLV, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because heavy communication satellites for geostationary orbit are launched by the GSLV, while the PSLV mainly serves polar and sun-synchronous low Earth orbits. Chandrayaan-3 did achieve a soft landing on the Moon, so statement 3 is correct. The right combination is 1 and 3.

Q86CSATCoding-Decoding

Q86. In a certain code language, 781 means 'Flowers of beautiful', 612 means 'Roses are red', and 982 means 'Roses are beautiful'. Which number denotes 'Flowers'?

(A) 8
(B) 7 ✓
(C) 2
(D) 6

Answer: (B) — Codes 781 and 982 share the word 'beautiful' and the digit 8, so 8 = beautiful. Codes 612 and 982 share the words 'Roses' and 'are' and the digit 2. In 781 = 'Flowers of beautiful', once 8 is beautiful, the remaining digits 7 and 1 stand for 'Flowers' and 'of'. The digit 7 appears only in this code, so it maps to the word unique here, 'Flowers'.

Q87CSATCoding-Decoding

Q87. In a certain code language, 781 means 'Flowers of beautiful', 612 means 'Roses are red', and 982 means 'Roses are beautiful'. What does the number '9' denote?

(A) Roses ✓
(B) Flowers
(C) Red
(D) are

Answer: (A) — From 781 and 982 the shared word 'beautiful' fixes 8 = beautiful. Codes 612 ('Roses are red') and 982 ('Roses are beautiful') share 'are', which maps to the common digit 2, so 2 = are. In 982 the remaining digit after beautiful (8) and are (2) is 9, which therefore stands for 'Roses'.

Q88HistoryBhakti and Sufi Movements

Q88. Consider the following conceptual statements regarding the Bhakti and Sufi movements in medieval India:

Instead of preaching exclusively in classical languages like Sanskrit or Arabic, saints of both movements extensively used local vernacular languages to effectively connect with the common masses.
Unlike the Bhakti movement, the prominent Sufi orders in India strictly prohibited the use of music, poetry and singing in their spiritual gatherings.
Both traditions fundamentally emphasised that intense personal devotion and love for the Almighty are far more important than performing complex religious rituals or pilgrimages.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 3

Answer: (B) — Saints of both movements preached in local vernaculars rather than only Sanskrit or Arabic to reach the common people, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the Chishti and several other Sufi orders embraced music and poetry through sama and qawwali rather than prohibiting them. Both traditions stressed personal devotion and love of God over ritual and pilgrimage, so statement 3 is correct.

Q89HistoryMedieval India – Mughal Empire

Q89. Which historical battle completed 500 years on 21 April 2026? Between whom was it fought?

(A) First Battle of Panipat; between Babur and Rana Sanga
(B) First Battle of Panipat; between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi ✓
(C) Second Battle of Panipat; between Akbar and Rana Pratap
(D) Second Battle of Panipat; between Akbar and Hemu

Answer: (B) — The First Battle of Panipat was fought on 21 April 1526, so its 500th anniversary fell on 21 April 2026. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of Delhi, using cannons and the tulughma flanking tactic, which ended the Lodi dynasty and founded the Mughal Empire. Babur's clash with Rana Sanga was at Khanwa in 1527, and the Second Battle of Panipat (Akbar's forces versus Hemu) was in 1556.

Q90Indian PolityFederalism

Q90. Which of the following best explains federalism in India?

(A) Dependence of States on the Union for finances and functionaries
(B) Cooperation among all the states for the development of the nation
(C) Distribution of powers between the Union and the States ✓
(D) An agreement between the Union and the States to set up federalism

Answer: (C) — Federalism's defining feature is the constitutional division of powers between the Union and the States, organised in India through the Union, State and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule. The other options describe particular tendencies or outcomes but don't capture the core idea. India is a federation by constitutional creation, not by an agreement among units.

Q91GeographyCyclones

Q91. Consider the following statements regarding cyclones:

The engine of an extra-tropical cyclone is latent heat, whereas the engine of a tropical cyclone is condensation of air due to frontal uplift.
Dissipation of an extra-tropical cyclone occurs due to occlusion, whereas a tropical cyclone dissipates due to the moisture supply being cut off.
Usually, the direction of movement of an extra-tropical cyclone is from west to east and that of a tropical cyclone is from east to west.
The area of impact of a tropical cyclone is much larger than that of an extra-tropical cyclone.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 4
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is reversed: the tropical cyclone's engine is the latent heat of condensation over warm oceans, while the extra-tropical cyclone draws energy from frontal temperature contrasts. Statement 2 is correct, as extra-tropical cyclones decay through occlusion and tropical cyclones weaken once the moisture supply is cut off. Statement 3 is correct on the directions of movement. Statement 4 is wrong because extra-tropical cyclones cover a far larger area than tropical ones. So 2 and 3 are correct.

Q92Science & TechnologyDefence – Missile Programme

Q92. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) spearheaded by DRDO?

The programme aimed at self-reliance in missile technology and resulted in the development of five missile systems: Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash and Nag.
Nag is a third-generation ‘fire-and-forget’ Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) that utilizes an Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) seeker for target acquisition.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — The IGMDP produced exactly five missile systems, Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash and Nag, so statement 1 is correct. Nag is a third-generation fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile that uses an imaging infrared seeker for target lock, so statement 2 is correct too. Both statements hold.

Q93CSATNumber Pattern

Q93. If 4 x 6 = 1812 and 6 x 9 = 2718, then 7 x 6 = ?

(A) 1821 ✓
(B) 2428
(C) 3035
(D) 3642

Answer: (A) — Each operand is multiplied by 3, and the two results are written together with the second operand's value first. For 4 x 6, the second operand 6 gives 18 and the first operand 4 gives 12, making 1812. For 6 x 9, 9 gives 27 and 6 gives 18, making 2718. For 7 x 6, the second operand 6 gives 18 and the first operand 7 gives 21, so the answer is 1821.

Q94HistoryAncient India – Buddhist Literature

Q94. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Which of the following Jataka tales is described in the passage given above?

“Depicted in a famous mural painting at the Ajanta Caves, this Buddhist narrative illustrates the ultimate perfection of charity and compassion. In the story, a virtuous king offers refuge to a terrified pigeon being chased by a hungry hawk. To uphold his duty of protecting the refugee without depriving the hawk of its natural food, the king resolves to offer his own flesh. As he cuts off pieces of his flesh to match the weight of the pigeon on a scale, the bird miraculously grows in body.”

(A) Vessantara Jataka
(B) Sibi Jataka ✓
(C) Chaddanta Jataka
(D) Mahajanaka Jataka

Answer: (B) — The story of a king who shelters a pigeon from a hawk and cuts off his own flesh to match the bird's weight on a scale is the Sibi Jataka, an emblem of supreme charity painted at Ajanta. The Vessantara Jataka is about a prince who gives away all his possessions, the Chaddanta Jataka concerns a six-tusked elephant, and the Mahajanaka Jataka tells of a shipwrecked prince. The flesh-on-the-scale episode points clearly to King Sibi.

Q95Indian PolityFundamental Rights – Religious Freedom

Q95. Which of the following statements about the Sabarimala temple is/are correct?

The dispute over the trust’s property is the main issue in the court case related to the Sabarimala temple.
The ban on entry for women between the ages of 10 and 50 is at the heart of the court case related to the Sabarimala temple.
Earlier, a bench of the Supreme Court had held the ban on entry for women to be unconstitutional.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — The core of the Sabarimala litigation is the bar on women of menstruating age, 10 to 50 years, not a property dispute, so statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct. In its 2018 judgment the Supreme Court held the exclusion of these women unconstitutional, so statement 3 is correct. The right combination is 2 and 3.

Q96Indian PolityParliament – Rajya Sabha

Q96. Consider the following statements about the Council of States:

Under the Indian Constitution, there is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States.
The Council of States cannot be correctly described as a federal Chamber because some of its members are nominated by the President.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is correct — under the Constitution there is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha seats are allotted by population, unlike the US Senate's equal representation). Statement 2 is incorrect — the Rajya Sabha can correctly be described as a federal chamber; the 12 nominated members don't negate that (official Rajya Sabha material itself calls it the federal chamber). So only statement 1 is correct → (A).

Q97GeographyEarthquakes

Q97. Consider the following statements about earthquakes:

The maximum damage due to an earthquake occurs at its epicentre.
In areas close to the epicentre, the earthquake waves reach the earth’s surface obliquely in a ‘to-and-fro movement’, thereby causing maximum damage.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — The maximum damage from an earthquake occurs at the epicentre, the point directly above the focus, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because near the epicentre the seismic waves reach the surface almost at right angles, nearly vertically, rather than obliquely as a 'to-and-fro movement'. Only statement 1 is correct.

Q98Science & TechnologyNanotechnology in Healthcare

Q98. In the context of modern healthcare, what is the primary objective of nano-shells or nano-bullets in cancer treatment?

(A) To strengthen the patient's bone marrow to withstand high doses of traditional chemotherapy.
(B) To act as a diagnostic tool that changes the colour of the patient's skin in the presence of a tumor.
(C) To provide targeted drug delivery, ensuring that medication is released only at the site of the cancer cells, thereby minimizing the side effects on healthy tissues. ✓
(D) To replace the need for surgery by physically vibrating and crushing the tumor using ultrasonic waves.

Answer: (C) — Nano-shells and nano-bullets are designed for targeted drug delivery, carrying the medication straight to cancer cells so it acts at the tumour site and spares healthy tissue. This precision is what reduces the broad toxicity seen with conventional chemotherapy. The other options misstate how these nanoparticles work.

Q99CSATLogical Reasoning – Statement and Conclusion

Q99. A situation is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Read the situation and both the conclusions carefully and select the correct answer.

Situation: Since the past 15 years, 75% of the products in the world’s pottery market come from Country ‘K’. However, the employment in the pottery industry of Country ‘K’ has been consistently declining by 5-9% every year for the past 3 years.

Conclusion I: Even after declining employment, Country ‘K’ has enough potters to continue contributing equally to the international market.

Conclusion II: The local demand for pottery in Country ‘K’ has substantially decreased, leading to less interest among potters.

(A) Neither I nor II can be concluded. ✓
(B) Only II can be concluded.
(C) Only I can be concluded.
(D) Both I and II can be concluded.

Answer: (A) — Conclusion I assumes the falling employment still leaves enough potters for equal market contribution, but the situation gives no basis for that forward assurance, so it cannot be concluded. Conclusion II blames a drop in local demand, yet the passage speaks only of world market share and employment and says nothing about domestic demand, so it cannot be concluded either. Neither conclusion follows.

Q100HistoryIndus Valley Civilization

Q100. Consider the following statements about Lothal:

In the Indus Valley Civilisation, Lothal was a centre of trade with Mesopotamia, Egypt and Persia.
Double burial was a common feature of Lothal.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Lothal, with its famous dockyard, was a major Harappan trading centre linked to Mesopotamia and other regions, so statement 1 is correct. Double burials, where a male and female were interred together in a single grave, are a noted feature of the site, so statement 2 is correct. Both statements hold.

Q101CSATCalendar – day calculation

Q101. It was Saturday on 12 December, 1342. What was the day on 24 August, 1342?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday ✓
(C) Sunday
(D) Friday

Answer: (B) — Count the days from 24 August to 12 December within 1342: 7 (rest of August) + 30 (Sep) + 31 (Oct) + 30 (Nov) + 12 (Dec) = 110 days. 110 divided by 7 leaves a remainder of 5, so 12 December falls 5 weekdays ahead of 24 August. Working back 5 days from Saturday gives Monday.

Q102HistoryGujarat history – Mahagujarat Movement

Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Mahagujarat Movement:

Following the success of the Navnirman Movement, its leaders decided to initiate the Mahagujarat Movement.
During the police firing in the movement, a sparrow was killed and a monument in its memory known as the ‘Chakli Smarak’ has been erected in Ahmedabad.
The movement successfully culminated in the formation of the separate linguistic state of Gujarat on 1 May, 1960.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — The Mahagujarat Movement ran from 1956 and won the separate Gujarati-speaking state on 1 May 1960, so statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 reverses the timeline; the Navnirman agitation came much later (1974), so the Mahagujarat leaders couldn't have acted on its success. The 'Chakli Smarak' sparrow story in statement 2 is not part of the movement's history, which is remembered through the Shaheed Smarak for students killed in police firing.

📖 Read more — Mahagujarat Movement

Q103Indian PolityUniform Civil Code – Gujarat UCC Bill

Q103. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code Bill recently passed by the Gujarat Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:

The Bill provides for compulsory registration of live-in relationships and excludes Scheduled Tribes from its applicability.
The Bill grants legal recognition to same-sex marriages and Civil unions on par with heterosexual marriages.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Gujarat's UCC Bill makes registration of live-in relationships compulsory and fully exempts Scheduled Tribes, so statement 1 is correct. The Bill, modelled on Uttarakhand's UCC, retains a heteronormative framework and does not recognise same-sex marriages or civil unions, which makes statement 2 wrong.

Q104Indian PolityDelimitation Commission

Q104. Examine the following statements regarding the composition and jurisdiction of the Delimitation Commission:

The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission.
The orders of the Delimitation Commission regarding seat boundaries cannot be challenged in any court.
To date, the Delimitation Commission has been constituted 4 times in India (1952, 1963, 1973, 2002).
By the Constitutional Amendment, the number of Lok Sabha seats has been frozen until 2026.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Answer: (D) — The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered body appointed by the President and works with the Election Commission, and its orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned in any court, so statements 1 and 2 hold. It has been set up four times, in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, and the 84th Amendment froze the apportionment of Lok Sabha seats until the first census after 2026, making statements 3 and 4 correct too.

Q105Indian EconomyInternational trade – South-South trade

Q105. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Over the last two decades, the volume of South-South trade (trade between developing nations) has expanded at a considerably faster rate than North-South trade.

Statement 2: The proliferation of regional trading blocs among emerging economies, combined with their rapid industrialization and growing middle-class consumer bases, has diversified their export destinations away from traditional developed markets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1 ✓
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct
(D) Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: (A) — South-South trade has indeed expanded far faster than North-South trade over the past two decades, so statement 1 is correct. The growth of regional trading blocs, rapid industrialisation and the rising middle-class consumer base among emerging economies genuinely drives this shift by diversifying export destinations away from developed markets, so statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

Q106Indian EconomyBalance of payments – capital account

Q106. The capital account of the balance of payments records transactions that cause a change in which one of the following?

(A) Savings of the private sector
(B) Disposable income of citizens
(C) The ownership of assets and liabilities between a country and the world ✓
(D) Exports and imports of visible goods

Answer: (C) — The capital account tracks all transactions that alter a country's foreign assets and liabilities, such as foreign investment, loans and banking flows. Exports and imports of goods belong to the current account, not the capital account.

Q107Science & TechnologyRFID technology – FASTag

Q107. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding "FASTag" (RFID technology) used at toll plazas?

It utilizes Active RFID tags that require an internal battery source to transmit signals to the toll reader.
It operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction to exchange data between the vehicle’s tag and the reader.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is false — FASTag uses a PASSIVE RFID tag (energised by the reader's signal), not an active, battery-powered tag. Statement 2 is technically weak too: FASTag-style UHF RFID works through electromagnetic fields and radio-wave communication, so calling it 'electromagnetic induction' is imprecise. On a strict reading neither statement is correct → (D). (If the examiner used 'electromagnetic induction' loosely for electromagnetic communication, they might retain (B); but technically (D) is the sounder answer.)

Q108CSATCoding-decoding – letter rearrangement

Q108. DRIVEN is related to EIDRVN in the same way as BEGUMF is related to:

(A) BGMEFU
(B) BGMUEF
(C) GMBEUF
(D) MGBEUF ✓

Answer: (D) — In DRIVEN the letters occupy positions 1-6 as D-R-I-V-E-N; the output EIDRVN rearranges them by picking original positions in the order 5,3,1,2,4,6. Applying the same order to BEGUMF (B1-E2-G3-U4-M5-F6) gives M-G-B-E-U-F, that is MGBEUF.

Q109HistoryRevolt of 1857

Q109. Consider the following statements regarding the Revolt of 1857:

Similar to the southern states of India, the region of Gujarat remained completely isolated and untouched by the events of the 1857 uprising.
Historical figures whose names are prominently associated with the events surrounding the 1857 uprising include Mangal Pandey, Bahadur Shah Zafar and Rani Lakshmibai.
During the revolt, all the native rulers and princes of Northern India unitedly supported the mutineers against the British East India Company.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Gujarat was not untouched by 1857; uprisings occurred at places like Dahod, Anand, Okha and among the Bhils, so statement 1 is wrong. Mangal Pandey, Bahadur Shah Zafar and Rani Lakshmibai are central figures of the revolt, making statement 2 correct. Statement 3 is false because many native rulers, such as the Scindias and the Nizam, actually sided with the British.

Q110Art and CultureUNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage

Q110. Recently, the festival of Deepawali was inscribed on the UNESCO 'Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity'. In this context, consider the following statements:

Prior to the inclusion of Deepawali, the traditional dance form ‘Garba of Gujarat’ was inscribed on this prestigious UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
In India, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) acts as the designated nodal agency for maintaining the national inventory of these living traditions and processing their nominations.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — 'Garba of Gujarat' was inscribed on the UNESCO list in December 2023, before Deepawali, so statement 1 is correct. The nodal agency for India's ICH nominations and the national inventory is the Sangeet Natak Akademi, not the Archaeological Survey of India, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q111Indian PolityRight to Information Act, 2005

Q111. Examine the following statements regarding the 'Right to Information' (RTI Act, 2005) and its limitations:

It is mandatory for an applicant to state the reason for seeking information under RTI.
If information is related to a person’s life or liberty, it must be provided within 48 hours.
Information affecting the sovereignty, integrity and strategic interests of the country can be refused.
The Chief Information Commissioner of India is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee led by the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — An applicant need not state any reason for seeking information under the RTI Act, so statement 1 is wrong. Information concerning a person's life or liberty must be supplied within 48 hours, matters affecting sovereignty, integrity and strategic interests can be refused, and the Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister, so statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q112GeographyInland waterways of India

Q112. Consider the following statements regarding India's inland water transport infrastructure:

National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is the longest navigable inland waterway in the country, extending from Prayagraj to Haldia along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system.
The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), implemented with technical and financial assistance from the World Bank, is primarily focused on capacity augmentation of the Brahmaputra River (NW-2).
The West Coast Canal (NW-3) maintains a highly consistent navigable draft year-round, facilitated by the natural topography of estuarine backwaters (Kayals) in Kerala.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — NW-1 along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly system from Prayagraj to Haldia is indeed the longest national waterway, so statement 1 is correct. The Jal Marg Vikas Project, backed by the World Bank, develops NW-1 on the Ganga, not the Brahmaputra (NW-2), so statement 2 is wrong. The West Coast Canal (NW-3) runs through Kerala's estuarine backwaters or Kayals, so statement 3 holds.

Q113Indian EconomyDemography – Economic Survey 2025-26

Q113. Economic Survey 2025-26 discusses 'Demographic Divergence' within India. What is the meaning of the term 'Demographic Divergence'?

(A) The gap between number of males and females in different regions of India
(B) The gap between birth rates and death rates in North and South India
(C) The gap in educational achievements in West and East India
(D) Some states having a young and growing workforce, while other states are facing an aging population ✓

Answer: (D) — Demographic divergence captures the widening split where southern and western states are ageing while northern states still have a young, growing workforce. This regional mismatch drives internal migration and complicates fiscal federalism and political representation.

Q114Science & TechnologyAgriculture – Nano Urea

Q114. Consider the following statements regarding 'Nano Urea' recently promoted by the Government of India for agricultural use:

It replaces the need for Phosphorus and Potash fertilizers entirely, simplifying the fertilizer application process for farmers.
It has a higher nutrient use efficiency compared to conventional granular urea, leading to reduced soil degradation and water pollution.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Nano urea is a nitrogen source and does not replace phosphorus and potash fertilizers, so statement 1 is wrong. It delivers much higher nutrient use efficiency than conventional granular urea, which cuts soil degradation and water pollution, making statement 2 correct.

Q115CSATSeating arrangement – circular

Q115. Seven friends, Manashvi, Prince, Pratham, Trushil, Mahima, Prishiv and Naitik are sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre. Manashvi is sitting to the immediate right of Prince. Naitik and Prishiv are not sitting to the immediate left or right of Trushil. Trushil is sitting third to the left of Prince. Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Trushil. Who is sitting third to the right of Prince?

(A) Naitik
(B) Pratham ✓
(C) Mahima
(D) Prishiv

Answer: (B) — With backs to the centre, right means clockwise and left anticlockwise. Fixing Prince and placing Manashvi to his right, Trushil third to his left, and Mahima to Trushil's right leaves the immediate left of Trushil open; since Naitik and Prishiv are barred from sitting beside Trushil, that seat must be Pratham. That seat is exactly third to the right of Prince.

Q116HistorySimon Commission

Q116. Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission:

Lokmanya Tilak wrote a series of aggressive articles in his newspaper ‘Kesari’ vehemently opposing the arrival of the commission.
The commission faced a widespread boycott in India primarily because it was a seven-member group with no Indian representation.
During a protest rally opposing the commission, Lala Lajpat Rai was severely injured in a police lathi-charge, which ultimately led to his death.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Tilak died in 1920, well before the Simon Commission of 1927-28, so he could not have written against it in Kesari, making statement 1 wrong. The commission was boycotted because it was a seven-member all-British body with no Indian representation, and Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured in a lathi-charge during an anti-Simon protest, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q117International RelationsRussia-Ukraine war

Q117. Consider the following statements regarding the Russia-Ukraine war:

The rift between Ukrainian President, Zelensky and Russian President, Putin became the main cause of the war.
Ukraine is located north of Russia.
Ukraine is receiving NATO support in the war.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — The war's roots lie in NATO expansion, the 2014 Crimea annexation and the Donbas conflict, not a personal rift between the two presidents, so statement 1 is wrong. Ukraine lies to the southwest of Russia, not to its north, so statement 2 is also wrong. Ukraine has been receiving military and financial backing from NATO members, which makes statement 3 correct.

Q118Indian PolityCentral Vigilance Commission

Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the role of the 'Central Vigilance Commission' (CVC) and the anti-corruption framework in India:

The ‘Central Vigilance Commission’ was established on the recommendation of the ‘Santhanam Committee’.
The Central Vigilance Commission works under the administrative control of the Investigation Bureau.
The Chairman and members of the Central Vigilance Commission cannot hold any office in the Central or State Government after retirement.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — The CVC was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee, so statement 1 is correct. It is an independent apex body and does not work under any 'Investigation Bureau', so statement 2 is wrong. Its Chairman and members are barred from holding any further office under the Central or State Government after retirement, making statement 3 correct.

Q119GeographyClimatology – temperature and humidity

Q119. Consider the following statements with reference to temperature and moisture characteristics in the middle and high latitudes:

The temperature and relative humidity are high and low respectively early in the morning.
The temperature and relative humidity are low and high respectively early in the morning.

Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Early in the morning the temperature is at its lowest, and since cool air holds less moisture, the relative humidity is at its highest. Statement 2 captures this correctly, while statement 1 reverses the relationship.

Q120Indian EconomyHuman Development Index – education dimension

Q120. The education dimension of the Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite of two indicators. Which are these two indicators?

(A) Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling ✓
(B) Male literacy rate and female literacy rate
(C) Number of schools and number of universities
(D) Primary school enrollment and enrollment in universities

Answer: (A) — The HDI education dimension combines mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 and above with expected years of schooling for children entering school. The education index is the arithmetic mean of these two normalised indicators.

Q121Science & TechnologyDigital Infrastructure

Q121. What is the primary objective of the BharatNet project?

(A) To provide last-mile mobile connectivity through installation of telecom towers in rural areas.
(B) To connect all Gram Panchayats with high-speed broadband infrastructure using optical fibre network. ✓
(C) To establish satellite communication exclusively for defence services.
(D) To establish a satellite-based communication network for remote and border regions.

Answer: (B) — BharatNet is the world's largest rural broadband project. Its core aim is to link every Gram Panchayat across India with high-speed broadband by laying an optical fibre cable network, bringing affordable connectivity and e-governance to villages. It isn't a mobile-tower or satellite scheme.

Q122CSATDictionary Order / Alphabetical Arrangement

Q122. After arranging the given words according to dictionary order, which word will come at the 'Fifth' position?

Arrange these words in dictionary order:

Popular
Population
Populace
Pope
Poppy

(A) Population ✓
(B) Poppy
(C) Popular
(D) Populace

Answer: (A) — Sorting all five words alphabetically gives: Pope, Poppy, Populace, Popular, Population. After "pop", the fourth letter orders them as e < p < u, then within "popul" the next letter c < r < t fixes Populace, Popular, Population. So the fifth word is Population.

Q123Art and CultureTemple Architecture

Q123. Consider the following statements regarding the famous Brihadeshwara Temple of Thanjavur:

The temple was constructed during the period of the Chalukya dynasty, showcasing their distinct architectural style.
Detailed descriptions of this magnificent temple are prominently found in ancient Sangam literature.
It is officially recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — The Brihadeshwara Temple was built by Rajaraja I of the Chola dynasty around 1010 CE, not the Chalukyas, so statement 1 is wrong. Sangam literature predates the 11th-century temple by centuries and contains no description of it, making statement 2 wrong. It is part of the UNESCO-listed Great Living Chola Temples, so only statement 3 holds.

Q124Art and CultureIndian Photography / Personalities

Q124. Raghu Rai was known for his excellent photographs of which of the following subjects?

Bhopal Gas Tragedy
India-China War
Taj Mahal
Terrorism in Kashmir

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 4
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) Only 2 and 4

Answer: (C) — Raghu Rai, a pioneer of Indian photojournalism and a Magnum photographer, is celebrated for documenting the 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy and for his photo-book on the Taj Mahal, along with iconic portraits of Mother Teresa and Indira Gandhi. He wasn't known for the India-China War or Kashmir terrorism, so only 1 and 3 are correct.

Q125Indian PolityFundamental Rights / Article 14

Q125. Consider the following statements in relation to Article 14, "equality before law" and "equal protection of the laws":

Equality before the law is a more positive concept, implying the right to equality of treatment in equal circumstances.
Equal protection of laws is a somewhat negative concept, implying the absence of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or like.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Both statements swap the two concepts. "Equality before law" is the negative concept of British origin, implying absence of any special privilege. "Equal protection of the laws" is the positive concept of American origin, implying equal treatment in equal circumstances. Since the question attaches the wrong description to each, neither statement is correct.

Q126GeographyGujarat Mineral Resources

Q126. Consider the following pairs of mineral resources and their prominent mining districts/regions in Gujarat:

Mineral	Associated Region
1. Bauxite	Devbhumi Dwarka
2. Lignite	Panandhro (Kutch)
3. Limestone	Porbandar
4. Chalk (Porbandar Stone)	Junagadh

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) — Bauxite is mined in Devbhumi Dwarka and Kutch, lignite at Panandhro in Kutch, and limestone in the Porbandar region, so pairs 1, 2 and 3 match. Chalk, also called Porbandar Stone, comes from Porbandar district and not Junagadh, so pair 4 is wrong.

Q127GeographyUrbanization / Human Geography

Q127. Consider the following statements with respect to urbanization in India:

The percentage increase in urban population has been consistently greater than the percentage increase in rural population for all decades since 1911.
Urbanization process has got concentrated over time in large cities and developed regions, particularly during the period of last two decades.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — The percentage increase in urban population has consistently outpaced that of rural population across the decades, reflecting steady urban growth. The process has also become top-heavy, concentrating in large cities and more developed regions, especially over the last two decades. Both statements describe the recognised pattern of Indian urbanization.

Q128Science & TechnologyBiofuels / Ethanol Blending

Q128. Consider the following statements regarding the technical aspects of ethanol blending:

E20 means a blend of 20% ethanol by weight in petrol.
Higher ethanol blends may require modifications to the vehicle engine.
Ethanol has a lower energy value than petrol.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — E20 means a blend of 20% ethanol by volume, not by weight, so statement 1 is wrong. Higher ethanol blends do call for engine and material modifications because ethanol can corrode some components, and ethanol's calorific value is lower than petrol's, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q129CSATLetter-Symbol Substitution / Logical Reasoning

Q129. Out of the following four alternatives, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct answer.

In this question, different alphabets stand for various mathematical symbols as indicated below:

‘+’ : O, ‘÷’ : Q, ‘<‘ : Z, ‘-‘ : M, ‘=’ : X, ‘×’ : A, ‘>’ : Y

(A) 2 Z 2 A 4 O 1 A 4 M 8 ✓
(B) 8 Y 2 A 3 A 4 Q 2 A 4
(C) 10 X 2 O 2 4 4 O 1 M 2
(D) 12 X 4 O 2 Q 1 A 4 A 2

Answer: (A) — Substituting the symbols (Z=<, A=×, O=+, M=-) option A reads 2 < 2×4 + 1×4 – 8, which is 2 < 8 + 4 – 8 = 4, a true statement. Option B gives 8 > 48 (false), option C is malformed, and option D gives 12 = 20 (false). Only A is valid.

Q130CSATLetter-Symbol Substitution / Logical Reasoning

Q130. Out of the following four alternatives, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct answer.

In this question, different alphabets stand for various mathematical symbols as indicated below:

‘+’ : O, ‘÷’ : Q, ‘<‘ : Z, ‘-‘ : M, ‘=’ : X, ‘×’ : A, ‘>’ : Y

(A) 10 1 Q 1 M 1 Y 3 Q 1
(B) 2 Q 1 O 10 A 1 Z 6 A 4 ✓
(C) 3 O 2 O 10 Q 2 X 10 A 2
(D) 5 Q 5 A 5 O 5 Y 5 A 2

Answer: (B) — Substituting the symbols (Q=÷, O=+, A=×, Z=<) option B reads 2÷1 + 10×1 < 6×4, which is 2 + 10 = 12 < 24, a true statement. Option A is malformed, option C gives 10 = 20 (false), and option D gives 10 > 10 (false). Only B is valid.

Q131HistoryFreedom Movement / Social Reformers

Q131. Consider the following statements regarding the eminent Gandhian leader and social reformer, Acharya Vinoba Bhave:

He is known for the ‘Bhoodan Movement’, which aimed to bring about voluntary land reform by persuading wealthy landowners to donate a portion of their land to the landless.
He served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the historic transition of India’s independence.
He was chosen by Mahatma Gandhi as the first Individual Satyagrahi to protest against India’s involvement in the Second World War.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — Vinoba Bhave launched the Bhoodan Movement in 1951 to secure voluntary land donations for the landless, and Gandhi chose him as the first individual Satyagrahi in 1940 against India's forced entry into the Second World War. He was never the President of the Indian National Congress, so statement 2 is wrong and only 1 and 3 are correct.

Q132Indian PolityFinance Commission / Fiscal Federalism

Q132. With reference to the 16th Finance Commission (FC) and its recommendations, consider the following statements regarding which are incorrect:

The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body whose recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes are legally binding on the Union Government.
The Commission has introduced ‘contribution to GDP’ as a criterion for horizontal devolution, replacing the earlier tax and fiscal effort parameter.
Revenue deficit grants, sector-specific grants and state-specific grants have been continued to ensure the fiscal stability of weaker states.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body, but its recommendations are advisory and not legally binding on the Union, so statement 1 is incorrect. The 16th FC did discontinue revenue deficit, sector-specific and state-specific grants rather than continuing them, so statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 about adding 'contribution to GDP' for horizontal devolution is true, so the incorrect statements are 1 and 3.

Q133Indian PolityConstitutional and Statutory Offices

Q133. Consider the following statements regarding the posts of 'Attorney General' and 'Solicitor General' of India:

The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is appointed by the President.
The Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but cannot vote.
The post of ‘Solicitor General’ is a constitutional post like that of the Attorney General.
The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — The Attorney General is the government's chief legal advisor appointed by the President, can speak in both Houses without a vote, and holds office during the President's pleasure, so statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Solicitor General's post is statutory, not a constitutional post like the Attorney General's, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q134GeographyClimatology / Western Disturbances

Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the winter atmospheric circulation over India:

Western Disturbances are shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the eastern Mediterranean Sea and traveling eastward across the Middle East.
The steering mechanism that brings these Western Disturbances to the Indian subcontinent is the Tropical Easterly Jet Stream.
The precipitation brought by these disturbances is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops in the northwestern plains of India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Western Disturbances are shallow cyclonic systems that form over the Mediterranean and move eastward, and their winter rain and snow are vital for Rabi crops in the northwestern plains, so statements 1 and 3 are correct. They are steered into the subcontinent by the subtropical westerly jet stream, not the Tropical Easterly Jet, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q135Indian EconomyNational Income / Capital Formation

Q135. Consider the following statements about domestic capital formation:

Domestic capital formation depends on domestic saving and capital inflow.
The rate of domestic capital formation in India is estimated as a percentage of GDP.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Gross domestic capital formation is funded by domestic saving plus net capital inflow from abroad, so statement 1 is correct. India measures its rate of capital formation as a ratio of investment to GDP, so statement 2 is also correct.

Q136Science & TechnologyChemistry / Corrosion

Q136. Consider the following statements regarding electrochemical corrosion:

The presence of moisture or electrolyte can accelerate the corrosion process.
The purer the metal, the greater the chance of corrosion.
Galvanic corrosion can occur when two dissimilar metals are in contact with each other.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — Moisture or an electrolyte speeds up corrosion by completing the electrochemical circuit, so statement 1 is correct, and galvanic corrosion does occur when two dissimilar metals touch, so statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because a purer metal resists corrosion better, while impurities set up local cells that worsen it.

Q137CSATData Sufficiency / Circular Seating Arrangement

Q137. Six people – K, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits to the immediate right of K?

Read both statements carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement-I: K sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between K and N. R sits to the immediate left of N.

Statement-II: K sits second to the right of Q. Only two people sit between K and M. P sits second to the left of R.

(A) Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not.
(B) Either data in Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question. ✓
(C) Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not.

Answer: (B) — Statement I fixes K with N two seats away and R to N's immediate left, which forces R into the seat to K's immediate right, so it is sufficient alone. Statement II independently fixes the arrangement as Q, P, K, R, N, M, again placing R to K's immediate right, so it too is sufficient alone. Since either statement alone answers the question, the answer is B.

Q138Art and CultureGujarati Literature

Q138. Consider the following prominent works of Gujarati literature. What is the common characteristic shared by all the literary works listed below?

Saapna Bhara
Dhwani
Malela Jeev
Amrita

What is the common characteristic shared by all the literary works listed above?

(A) All of these books have been adapted into famous Gujarati feature films.
(B) All of these books were published prior to India's independence in 1947.
(C) All of these books are written by authors who have been honoured with the prestigious 'Jnanpith Award'. ✓
(D) All of these books are poetry collections that have received the 'Ranjitram Suvarna Chandrak'.

Answer: (C) — Saapna Bhara is by Umashankar Joshi, Dhwani by Rajendra Shah, Malela Jeev by Pannalal Patel and Amrita by Raghuveer Chaudhari, and all four authors are Jnanpith Award laureates. The works span different genres and publication years, so the only shared trait is their authors' Jnanpith honour.

Q139Indian PolityLabour Codes / Governance

Q139. With reference to the four new 'Labour Codes' enacted by the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

Since “Labour” is a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, the Central Government has uniformly implemented the Codes across all states via an executive order.
The Code on Wages, 2019, restricts the guarantee of a minimum wage to workers engaged exclusively in the organized sector and specific ‘scheduled employments’.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Labour is in the Concurrent List, but the Codes are not implemented uniformly by central executive order; states must frame their own rules and roll-out has been staggered, so statement 1 is wrong. The Code on Wages, 2019, actually universalised the minimum wage to all workers in both organized and unorganized sectors, removing the old scheduled-employment limit, so statement 2 is also wrong.

Q140Indian PolityParliament / Joint Sitting

Q140. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Joint Sitting' of Parliament and its procedure:

The President can call a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary Bill.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting and in their absence, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
There is no provision for a joint sitting for Constitutional Amendment Bills and Money Bills.
So far in the history of the Indian Parliament, a joint sitting has been called only 3 times.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) — The President can summon a joint sitting under Article 108 to break a deadlock on an ordinary Bill, there is no joint sitting for Constitutional Amendment or Money Bills, and only three joint sittings have been held so far, so statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because in the Speaker's absence the Deputy Speaker presides, and the Rajya Sabha Chairman never presides over a joint sitting.

Q141GeographyLinguistic Geography of India

Q141. Consider the following statements regarding the linguistic composition of India:

The Indo-Aryan language family is the largest, accounting for over 70% of the total population of India.
The Austric language family has the smallest proportion of speakers among the four major linguistic groups in the country.
According to the 2011 Census, Bengali is the second-most spoken language in India by the number of native speakers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (D) — The Indo-Aryan family covers roughly 73% of India's population, comfortably over 70%, so statement 1 holds. Among the four major families (Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, Tibeto-Burman/Sino-Tibetan and Austric), the Austric group has the smallest share of speakers, making statement 2 correct. The 2011 Census also ranks Bengali second after Hindi by native speakers, so statement 3 is right too.

Q142Indian EconomyUnion Budget 2026-27 and Creative Economy

Q142. The Union Budget 2026-27 introduces the concept of 'Orange Economy'. To which one of the following is this term related?

(A) Cultivation and exports of best quality oranges from Maharashtra
(B) Creative industries like animation and comics ✓
(C) Manufacturing and maintenance of black box of aircraft which is orange in colour
(D) Cultivation and exports of sunflowers from North India

Answer: (B) — The Orange Economy refers to creative and cultural industries that generate value from ideas, imagination and intellectual property rather than raw materials. Budget 2026-27 used the term while pushing the AVGC sector (animation, visual effects, gaming and comics), including AVGC content creator labs and a target of two million jobs by 2030. The colour orange is associated worldwide with creativity and culture.

📖 Read more — Union Budget

Q143Indian EconomyDigital Payments and UPI

Q143. Which of the following statements regarding digital payment systems in India are correct?

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) enables real-time fund transfer between bank accounts.
Digital payments eliminate the need for any physical infrastructure.
QR codes facilitate quick transactions without requiring card swiping machines.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — UPI does enable real-time, round-the-clock fund transfer between bank accounts, so statement 1 is correct. QR codes let merchants accept payments without a card-swiping machine, making statement 3 correct. Statement 2 is wrong because digital payments still depend heavily on physical infrastructure like servers, smartphones, data centres and telecom networks.

Q144CSATNumber Series

Q144. Select the missing number from the given series: 98, 70, 42, 14, ?, -42

(A) -10
(B) -14 ✓
(C) 0
(D) -15

Answer: (B) — Each term decreases by a constant 28: 98 minus 28 is 70, 70 minus 28 is 42, 42 minus 28 is 14. So the next term is 14 minus 28, which is -14, and -14 minus 28 gives -42, matching the last term.

Q145Art and CultureRogan Art of Gujarat

Q145. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Rogan Art':

It is an indigenous Indian art form that originated purely in the Kutch region of Gujarat and is traditionally practiced by local tribal communities.
A master artisan of this art form has been honoured with the prestigious ‘Padma Shri’ award for his contribution to this craft.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is wrong because Rogan art did not originate purely in Kutch; it has Persian roots, with the name coming from the Persian word for oil, before taking hold in Nirona village of Kutch. Statement 2 is correct, as master artisan Abdul Gafur Khatri received the Padma Shri in 2019 for reviving and sustaining this craft.

📖 Read more — Rogan Art Of Gujarat

Q146Current AffairsDistress Signals in Aviation and Maritime

Q146. The term 'Mayday', seen in the news in the context of recent maritime and aviation incidents, refers to:

(A) An automated warning system that instantly alerts nearby vessels or air traffic controllers of a sudden loss of engine power.
(B) An internationally recognized voice distress signal used to indicate that a vessel or aircraft is facing a grave and imminent danger to life. ✓
(C) A designated emergency radio frequency used exclusively by coast guards and naval authorities to issue severe weather warnings.
(D) An encrypted transponder code utilized by commercial pilots to discreetly signal a hijacking or terror threat to ground control.

Answer: (B) — Mayday is the standard international voice distress call used by pilots and mariners when life is in grave and imminent danger, and it's repeated three times for clarity. It comes from the French 'm'aider', meaning 'help me'. It isn't an automated system, a fixed frequency or an encrypted code, which rules out the other options.

Q147Indian PolityEmergency Provisions

Q147. Consider the following statements regarding the effects of 'Emergency' in the Indian Constitution:

During a National Emergency, the 6 freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
When President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the state legislative assembly is mandatorily dissolved.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Both statements are flawed → (D). Statement 1 is overbroad: under Article 358 the six freedoms in Article 19 are suspended automatically — by operation of the Constitution, with no presidential order needed — ONLY when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression, not for an emergency on the ground of armed rebellion (post-44th Amendment). A presidential order is what Article 359 requires, and that is to suspend the enforcement of OTHER rights, not Article 19. Statement 2 is also incorrect as worded. So neither statement is correct.

Q148Indian EconomyGovernment Budget and Deficits

Q148. Primary deficit is the difference between

(A) Revenue deficit and interest payments.
(B) Total revenue receipts and total revenue expenditure.
(C) Revenue deficit and non-debt creating capital receipts.
(D) Fiscal deficit and interest payments. ✓

Answer: (D) — Primary deficit equals fiscal deficit minus interest payments on past borrowings. It strips out the burden of earlier debt and shows the government's current-year borrowing requirement for fresh spending. Option B describes the revenue deficit, so it doesn't apply here.

Q149Indian EconomyPublic Debt and Crowding Out

Q149. Which one of the following best defines 'crowding out' in the context of public debt?

(A) High government borrowing increases interest rates and thereby reduces private sector investment. ✓
(B) High government borrowing increases income tax rates and thereby decreases disposable income of citizens.
(C) High government borrowing leads to decreased subsidies for poor people.
(D) High government borrowing leads to higher indirect taxes.

Answer: (A) — The crowding-out effect occurs when heavy government borrowing absorbs available loanable funds and pushes up interest rates. Costlier credit then discourages private firms from borrowing and investing. The other options describe tax or subsidy effects, not the interest-rate channel that defines crowding out.

📖 Read more — Crowding Out Effect

Q150Science & TechnologyLighting Technology

Q150. Why is LED (Light Emitting Diode) technology considered superior to traditional incandescent bulbs?

LEDs convert a higher percentage of electrical energy into light rather than heat.
LEDs produce light through the heating of a metal filament.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is correct: LEDs convert a much higher share of electrical energy into light and waste far less as heat, which makes them far more efficient. Statement 2 is wrong because producing light by heating a metal filament describes the incandescent bulb, not the LED. An LED emits light when current passes through a semiconductor.

Q151HistoryMauryan Art and Architecture

Q151. Consider the following statements regarding the architectural and sculptural traditions of the Mauryan period:

Drawing structural inspiration from the Achaemenian empire, the stone pillars of the Mauryan period were constructed in multiple pieces by highly skilled masons.
Lomas Rishi Cave, located in the Barabar Hills, is associated with Jainism.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is wrong because Mauryan stone pillars, though drawing inspiration from Achaemenian art, were monolithic, carved from a single piece of stone rather than assembled in multiple pieces. Statement 2 is also wrong, since the Lomas Rishi Cave in the Barabar Hills is associated with the Ajivika sect, not Jainism.

Q152EnvironmentGreat Indian Bustard Conservation

Q152. The 'Great Indian Bustard (GIB)' (Ghorad) is frequently seen in the news in the context of wildlife conservation efforts in western India. Consider the following statements regarding this species:

Currently, the highest surviving wild population of the Great Indian Bustard in India is located in the semi-arid grasslands of Gujarat.
It is a long-distance migratory bird that travels from Central Asia to the Indian subcontinent to escape harsh winters.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is wrong because the largest surviving wild population of the Great Indian Bustard is in Rajasthan, mainly in the Jaisalmer area of the Thar Desert, not Gujarat, which holds only a handful of birds. Statement 2 is also wrong, since the GIB is a resident, non-migratory bird and does not travel from Central Asia to escape winters.

Q153Indian PolityWrits and Article 32

Q153. Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and types of 'Writs':

The writ of ‘Mandamus’ can also be issued against private individuals.
Through the writ of ‘Quo warranto’, the court can ask by what authority a person holds an office.
The writ of ‘Prohibition’ can be issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for fundamental rights, whereas High Courts can issue writs for other rights as well.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — Mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals or bodies, so statement 1 is wrong. Quo warranto lets a court ask by what authority a person holds a public office, so statement 2 is correct. Prohibition is issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities, making statement 3 correct, and the Supreme Court issues writs only for fundamental rights while High Courts can do so for other legal rights too, so statement 4 is correct.

Q154GeographyForest Types of India

Q154. Consider the following pairs of tree species and their associated forest type:

Tree Species	Associated Forest Type
1. Rosewood (Dalbergia latifolia)	Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests
2. Teak (Tectona grandis)	Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests
3. Khejri (Prosopis cineraria)	Tropical Thorn Forests
4. Sundari (Heritiera fomes)	Littoral and Swamp Forests
5. Deodar (Cedrus deodara)	Mountainous Sub-Tropical Broad-leaves Forests

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Answer: (D) — Rosewood is a characteristic species of tropical wet evergreen forests, teak of tropical moist deciduous forests, khejri of tropical thorn forests, and sundari of littoral and swamp (mangrove) forests, so pairs 1 to 4 are correctly matched. Pair 5 is wrong because deodar, a Himalayan conifer, belongs to the Himalayan moist temperate forests, not the sub-tropical broad-leaved category.

Q155Indian EconomyBanking and Monetary Policy

Q155. Consider the following statements:

Bank run is a situation which occurs when a large number of depositors start withdrawing their money from bank at the same time which leads to bank failure.
Bank rate is the interest rate charged by the RBI for short-term loans that it gives to the Commercial banks.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 correctly describes a bank run, where a large number of depositors rush to withdraw funds at the same time, which can push a bank toward failure. Statement 2 is wrong because the bank rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks for long-term loans without collateral; the rate for short-term lending is the repo rate.

📖 Read more — Monetary Policy Rbi Tools

Q156Science & TechnologyFood Preservation and Vacuum Packing

Q156. Consider the following statements regarding the scientific aspects of vacuum packing:

Humidity has no effect in vacuum packing.
Oxidation reactions slow down due to the reduced oxygen content in vacuum packing.
Some anaerobic microorganisms can grow even in vacuum conditions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is wrong because humidity and moisture do affect vacuum-packed food, influencing texture and microbial activity. Statement 2 is correct, since removing oxygen slows oxidation reactions that cause spoilage and rancidity. Statement 3 is also correct, as anaerobic microorganisms can still grow in low-oxygen vacuum conditions, which is why refrigeration is still needed.

Q157CSATTime and Work

Q157. Working at an equal rate, 5 employees can complete a total of 150 tasks in a year. How many tasks could 12 employees complete in 3 years?

(A) 1080 ✓
(B) 2122
(C) 3500
(D) 4375

Answer: (A) — If 5 employees finish 150 tasks in a year, each employee completes 30 tasks per year. So 12 employees complete 360 tasks in one year, and over 3 years that's 360 times 3, which equals 1080 tasks.

Q158Art and CulturePietra Dura and Mughal Architecture

Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the decorative art technique known as 'Pietra Dura':

It is a technique where precisely cut and polished colored stones are inlaid into a stone base to create elaborate images or geometric patterns.
The use of this technique is exclusively limited to Islamic architecture.
The Taj Mahal is renowned for its extensive and exquisite use of Pietra Dura, particularly in its floral motifs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 correctly describes pietra dura as an inlay technique where cut and polished coloured stones are set into a stone base to form images or patterns. Statement 2 is wrong because the technique is not exclusive to Islamic architecture; it flourished in Renaissance Florence in Italy. Statement 3 is correct, as the Taj Mahal is famous for its lavish pietra dura work, especially its floral motifs.

Q159Indian PolityRight to Die with Dignity and Euthanasia

Q159. With reference to the Supreme Court's landmark judgment in the Harish Rana vs. Union of India case, consider the following statements regarding euthanasia in India:

The fundamental right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution encompasses dignity until death, consequently including the right to die with dignity.
While the law permits the withdrawal of life-support systems under strict medical guidelines, the deliberate administration of lethal substances to accelerate a patient’s death remains a criminal offense.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) — Statement 1 is correct because the right to live with dignity under Article 21 has been read to include dignity until death, and therefore the right to die with dignity. Statement 2 is also correct: the Harish Rana case allowed passive euthanasia, the withdrawal of life support under strict medical guidelines, while active euthanasia, the deliberate administration of a lethal substance, remains a criminal offence.

Q160Indian PolityArticle 311 and Civil Servant Protection

Q160. Examine the following statements regarding 'Article 311' of the Constitution and the protection granted to Civil Servants:

No civil servant shall be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one by which they were appointed.
No officer shall be removed without informing them of the charges and giving them an opportunity for inquiry.
In the interest of national security, the President or Governor can remove an officer without an inquiry.
This protection is available only to All India Services officers and not to state service officers.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) — Statements 1, 2 and 3 correctly capture Article 311's safeguards: no civil servant can be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the appointing one, none can be removed without being told the charges and given an inquiry, and the President or Governor can dispense with the inquiry in the interest of state security. Statement 4 is wrong because this protection covers all civil servants of the Union and the States, not just All India Services officers.

Q161GeographyHimalayan Mountain Passes

Q161. Which of the following mountain passes is/are located in the Zaskar Range of the Himalayas and historically served as a critical trade route connecting the Kashmir Valley with the cold desert of Ladakh?

Zoji La
Shipki La

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) — Zoji La lies in the Zaskar (Zanskar) Range and is the vital link between the Kashmir Valley and Ladakh, long used by traders carrying wool, pashmina and saffron. Shipki La sits in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh and connects India with Tibet, so it's neither in the Zaskar Range nor on the Kashmir-Ladakh route. Only statement 1 fits.

Q162Indian EconomyUnion Budget 2025-26

Q162. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, arrange the following sources of government revenue in descending order of their share in the government's total receipts:

GST and other taxes
Borrowing and other liabilities
Income Tax
Corporation Tax

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) 1-3-2-4
(B) 2-3-1-4 ✓
(C) 1-4-3-2
(D) 3-1-4-2

Answer: (B) — In the 2025-26 "where the rupee comes from" chart, borrowings and other liabilities lead at 24%, income tax follows at 22%, GST and other indirect taxes contribute 18%, and corporation tax adds 17%. That gives the descending order Borrowing > Income Tax > GST > Corporation, which is 2-3-1-4.

Q163Science & TechnologyFuels and Combustion

Q163. Consider the following statements regarding the comparison of PNG (Piped Natural Gas) and LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas):

PNG is lighter than air and therefore spreads upwards in case of leakage, whereas LPG is heavier than air and therefore collects near the ground.
PNG always provides more energy per unit weight than LPG.
The pressure of PNG is generally lower than that of LPG.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — PNG is mostly methane, which is lighter than air and disperses upward on leakage, while LPG is heavier and pools near the ground, so statement 1 holds. PNG is also supplied at much lower pressure than LPG cylinders, so statement 3 holds. Statement 2 is the trap: the blanket claim that PNG "always" gives more energy per unit weight than LPG is false, since LPG is the more energy-rich domestic fuel.

Q164CSATData Interpretation – Percentages⚠ Defective

Q164. In a company there are 200 employees: 40% are in marketing, 30% in IT and the rest in production. In the IT department 40% are female and in the production department 30% are female. What is the total number of female employees?

In a company, there are 200 employees. 40% of them are in marketing, 30% in IT and the rest are in the production department. In the IT department 40% are female and in the production department 30% are female. 20% of males from the IT department work part time, 70% of males from the marketing department work full time and 5% of males from the production department work part time.

(A) 30
(B) 42 ✓
(C) 50
(D) 62

Answer: (B) — Defective question. Finding the number of female employees needs the count of FEMALE employees in marketing, which the data never gives — the keyed answer (B) 42 only follows if you assume every marketing employee is male, an assumption the question doesn't state. Without that figure the total can't be determined, so the item should be treated as defective.

Q165CSATData Interpretation – Percentages⚠ Defective

Q165. In a company there are 200 employees: 40% in marketing, 30% in IT and the rest in production. 20% of IT males work part time, 70% of marketing males work full time and 5% of production males work part time. What is the total number of male employees working in full-time mode?

(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 125 ✓
(D) 200

Answer: (C) — Defective question — the same gap as the previous item: the number of male employees in marketing isn't given, so the count of full-time male employees can't be fixed. The keyed working also produces 124.7 rounded to (C) 125, which isn't clean for an employee count. Treat as defective.

Q166HistoryIndus Valley Civilisation – Art and Craft

Q166. "During the Indus Valley Civilisation, artisans practiced a specialized metal-casting method. Figures were first modelled from a specific material, then covered with a coating of clay and dried. The coated figure was heated and the molten inner material drained out through a tiny hole in the clay cover. The hollow mould was filled with molten metal, which took the original shape. Once the metal cooled the clay cover was removed. The famous bronze 'Dancing Girl' from Mohenjodaro was crafted using this method." What is the name of the technique described in the passage above?

(A) Terracotta casting
(B) Lost wax technique ✓
(C) Steatite carving
(D) Faience molding

Answer: (B) — Modelling a figure in wax, coating it in clay, melting out the wax through a hole and then pouring in molten metal is the lost-wax (cire perdue) technique. The Mohenjodaro bronze Dancing Girl is the classic Harappan example. Terracotta, steatite carving and faience are entirely different material processes.

Q167Indian EconomyEnergy Security – Strategic Petroleum Reserves

Q167. Recent global conflicts have underscored the importance of domestic Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR). With reference to India's SPR programme, consider the following statements:

Under Phase-I of the SPR programme, underground rock caverns for storing crude oil have been established exclusively on the western coast of India to minimize transit time from the Middle East.
The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle created by the Government of India specifically to build and operate these strategic crude oil storage facilities.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 ✓
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) — Phase-I caverns aren't confined to the west coast: Visakhapatnam sits on the east coast, while Mangalore and Padur are on the west, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is right, as the Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited is a Special Purpose Vehicle set up to build and run these crude storage facilities.

Q168Indian PolityPublic Policy and Governance Institutions

Q168. Consider the following statements regarding the role of institutions in the formulation and implementation of 'Public Policy' in India:

The Cabinet Secretariat works directly under the leadership of the Prime Minister and is the main center of policy coordination.
The ‘Governing Council’ of NITI Aayog has completely replaced the National Development Council.
Private sector experts are involved in government policy formulation through ‘Lateral Entry’.
Parliamentary Standing Committees conduct detailed examinations of ministries’ policies and expenditures.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 ✓
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) — The Cabinet Secretariat works under the Prime Minister as the apex policy-coordination hub (1), lateral entry brings in private-sector experts (3), and parliamentary standing committees scrutinise ministries' policies and spending (4). Statement 2 is wrong because NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission, not the National Development Council, and its Governing Council hasn't formally abolished the NDC.

Q169GeographyDrainage System of Gujarat – Kutch

Q169. Consider the following statements regarding the drainage system of Kutch:

Most rivers in the Kutch region are ephemeral and non-perennial, carrying water only during the brief monsoon season.
The rivers originating from the central hilly tracts of Kutch invariably drain into the Arabian Sea directly.
The Luni River, after traversing through Rajasthan, dissipates into the marshy lands of the Rann of Kutch.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — Most Kutch rivers are ephemeral and flow only during the short monsoon (1), and the Luni, after crossing Rajasthan, peters out in the marshes of the Rann of Kutch (3). Statement 2 overreaches: rivers from the central highlands don't all drain directly into the Arabian Sea, since many flow north into the Rann, so the word "invariably" makes it false.

Q170Indian EconomyIndian Economy on the Eve of Independence

Q170. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian economy under British rule?

(A) Widespread acute poverty
(B) Weak industrial structure
(C) Farming was mainly done using traditional methods
(D) Working population in agriculture decreased considerably ✓

Answer: (D) — Colonial India did suffer widespread poverty, a weak industrial base and backward, traditional farming. The odd one out is option D, since de-industrialisation actually pushed more people into agriculture, so the share of the workforce in farming rose rather than fell.

Q171Science & TechnologyHuman Physiology – Blood Pressure

Q171. Consider the following statements regarding the process of measuring blood pressure:

The arm should be kept below the level of the heart while measuring blood pressure.
Systolic pressure is always higher than diastolic.
Blood pressure can change at different times during the day.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) — Systolic pressure is by definition higher than diastolic (2), and readings genuinely vary across the day with activity, stress and rest (3). Statement 1 is wrong because the arm should rest at heart level, not below it, since a low arm position falsely raises the reading.

Q172CSATPercentages – Successive Change

Q172. The price of a commodity is increased by 25%, then decreased by 20%. What will be the net percentage change in the price?

(A) 5% increase
(B) 10% increase
(C) 5% decrease
(D) No change ✓

Answer: (D) — Take the price as 100. A 25% rise gives 125, and a 20% fall on 125 is 25, leaving 100. The price returns to its original value, so there's no net change.

Q173HistoryPartition of India – Communal Violence

Q173. Consider the following statements regarding the Noakhali riots that occurred during the partition of India:

Noakhali is a town located in the Sindh province of undivided India, which witnessed severe communal violence in 1946-47.
‘Frontier Gandhi’ Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan played a pivotal role in walking through the affected villages to pacify the communal sentiments of the people.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Noakhali is in East Bengal (now Bangladesh), not Sindh, so statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is also wrong: it was Mahatma Gandhi who walked village to village in Noakhali to calm communal tensions, while Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, the 'Frontier Gandhi', worked in the North-West Frontier Province.

Q174Current AffairsSports – Commonwealth Games 2030

Q174. With reference to the Commonwealth Games (CWG), consider the following statements:

The 2030 edition in Ahmedabad is officially recognized as the ‘Centenary Games’.
Traditionally, China has dominated the Commonwealth Games by consistently topping the medal tally with the highest number of total medals.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) — Ahmedabad's 2030 edition is officially the 'Centenary Games', marking 100 years since the first edition at Hamilton in 1930, so statement 1 is right. Statement 2 is wrong because China doesn't even compete in the Commonwealth Games; Australia has long topped the medal tally.

📖 Read more — Commonwealth Games

Q175Indian PolityNational Human Rights Commission

Q175. Examine the following statements regarding the powers and jurisdiction of the 'National Human Rights Commission' (NHRC):

The Commission has direct power to punish for human rights violations or award compensation to victims.
The Commission can only investigate incidents that occurred within one year.
The Commission can request a report from the Central Government in cases of human rights violations by armed forces.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — The NHRC can only investigate complaints made within one year of the incident (2), and for violations by the armed forces it can merely seek a report from the central government (3). Statement 1 is wrong because the NHRC is recommendatory; it cannot itself punish or award compensation, only recommend such action to the government or courts.

Q176GeographyMigration – Census 2011

Q176. What is the biggest reason for migration in India as per Census 2011?

(A) Education
(B) Employment
(C) Marriage ✓
(D) Under-developed regional economy

Answer: (C) — Census 2011 records marriage as the single largest reason for migration in India, driven overwhelmingly by women moving to their marital homes. Employment is the leading cause specifically for male migration, but overall marriage dominates the totals.

Q177Science & TechnologyComputer and Network Security

Q177. What does a "Firewall" do?

(A) Removes viruses from the computer.
(B) Filters data coming and going in the network. ✓
(C) Creates backups of data.
(D) Automatically encrypts all files.

Answer: (B) — A firewall monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic against a set of security rules, acting as a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external ones. Removing viruses is the job of antivirus software, while backups and encryption are separate functions.

Q178CSATQuadratic Equations

Q178. Find a positive number which, when multiplied by 2 and decreased by 10, is equal to 12 times the reciprocal of the number.

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6 ✓
(D) 8

Answer: (C) — The condition gives 2x – 10 = 12/x, which becomes 2x^2 – 10x – 12 = 0, or x^2 – 5x – 6 = 0. Factoring as (x – 6)(x + 1) = 0 gives x = 6 or x = -1, and the positive value is 6.

Q179HistoryIndian Freedom Movement – Komagata Maru Incident

Q179. The 'Komagata Maru' holds an irreplaceable place in the narrative of modern Indian history. This ship is primarily famous because

(A) It was the vessel from which Veer Savarkar made his legendary escape into the ocean while being deported to India.
(B) It was the ship aboard which Mahatma Gandhi wrote his foundational philosophical text, 'Hind Swaraj'.
(C) It carried Indian immigrants who were denied entry at a foreign port under strict immigration rules, resulting in a prolonged standoff and their forced return. ✓
(D) It was the central warship where the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) initiated their historic mutiny against British authorities.

Answer: (C) — The Komagata Maru carried mostly Sikh, Muslim and Hindu passengers from Punjab to Vancouver in 1914, where Canadian immigration laws barred their entry, leading to a long standoff and their forced return to India. Savarkar's escape was from the SS Morea, Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj aboard the SS Kildonan Castle, and the 1946 RIN mutiny centred on HMIS Talwar.

Q180International RelationsOPEC and Global Energy Politics

Q180. Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC grouping:

OPEC mainly influences global oil markets through export quotas instead of production targets.
The United Arab Emirates was the first country to withdraw from OPEC.
OPEC membership has always been confined only to countries in Asia and Africa whereas the OPEC + group allows membership from other continents as well.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None of the above ✓

Answer: (D) — OPEC steers markets through production targets and quotas, not export quotas, so statement 1 is reversed and wrong. The UAE wasn't the first to leave; Ecuador exited as far back as 1992, well before Indonesia, Qatar and the UAE's 2026 departure, so statement 2 is wrong. OPEC has never been confined to Asia and Africa, since founding member Venezuela and later Ecuador are in South America, so statement 3 is wrong too. None of the three are correct.

Q181Indian PolityState Executive and Governor

Q181. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position and discretionary powers of the Governor of a State:

The Governor can reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President if it endangers the powers of the High Court.
Recommending the imposition of President’s Rule in a state is considered a discretionary power of the Governor.
The Governor cannot be held answerable in any court for official acts performed during their tenure.
It is a mandatory qualification written in the Constitution that the Governor must not be a resident of the concerned state.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — Under Article 200, the Governor can reserve a Bill that endangers the position of the High Court for the President, and recommending President's Rule is a recognised discretionary power, so statements 1 and 2 hold. Article 361 protects the Governor from court answerability for official acts, making statement 3 correct. Statement 4 is wrong because not being a resident of the concerned state is only a convention, not a constitutional qualification; Article 157 only requires citizenship and a minimum age of 35.

📖 Read more — Governor

Q182GeographyOceanography and Salinity

Q182. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of ocean salinity:

The highest surface salinity in the open oceans is recorded precisely at the equator due to maximum year-round solar insolation.
In the Arctic Ocean, surface salinity fluctuates significantly across seasons due to the freezing and thawing of sea ice.
In high-latitude regions, the salinity of ocean water generally increases with depth, creating a distinct halocline layer.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3 ✓
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is wrong because the highest open-ocean surface salinity sits in the subtropics around 20°-30° latitude, where evaporation peaks, not at the equator, where heavy rainfall dilutes the surface. Statement 2 is right: Arctic surface salinity swings with the seasonal freezing and melting of sea ice. Statement 3 is also right because high-latitude waters carry a fresh, light surface layer over saltier deep water, so salinity rises with depth through a sharp halocline.

Q183Indian EconomyNational Income Accounting

Q183. __________ is defined as the measure in monetary terms of the volume of all goods and services produced within the geographical boundary of the State during a given period of time.

(A) Gross per capita income
(B) Gross state domestic product ✓
(C) Gross national income
(D) Gross value added

Answer: (B) — Gross State Domestic Product is the money value of all final goods and services produced within a state's geographical boundary over a given period. The word 'State' and the geographical-boundary framing point clearly to GSDP rather than national aggregates like gross national income or per-capita measures.

Q184Indian EconomyEnergy and Infrastructure

Q184. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Renewable Energy Installed Capacity in India?

Wind energy is second only to solar energy in the Indian renewable sector.
Biomass power capacity accounts for around 30% of India’s total renewable energy.
India ranks among the top three countries in the world in Hydropower Installed Capacity.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is right: solar leads India's renewable capacity at over 150 GW, with wind a distant second at about 56 GW. Statement 2 is wrong because bio-energy is only around 12 GW, roughly 4% of the renewable mix, nowhere near 30%. Statement 3 is also wrong since India ranks about fifth, not top three, in installed hydropower capacity.

Q185CSATLogical Reasoning and Deduction

Q185. To understand inclination of students towards various subjects, three students are asked to give their preference for three subjects: Mathematics, Science and History. Each student either preferred or did not prefer each subject. Two students selected History, one student selected Science, two students selected Mathematics. Student 1 does not select Mathematics and Science. Student 2 selects subjects except Science. Student 3 does not select History. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Student 1 selected Mathematics
(B) Student 3 selected Science and History
(C) Student 2 selected Mathematics and History ✓
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) — Since only one student took Science and neither Student 1 nor Student 2 could, Science goes to Student 3. History needs two takers but Student 3 cannot, so History goes to Students 1 and 2. Mathematics needs two takers but Student 1 cannot, so Maths goes to Students 2 and 3. That leaves Student 1 with History only, Student 2 with Maths and History, and Student 3 with Science and Maths, which makes option (c) true.

Q186CSATLogical Reasoning and Deduction

Q186. To understand inclination of students towards various subjects, three students are asked to give their preference for three subjects: Mathematics, Science and History. Each student either preferred or did not prefer each subject. Two students selected History, one student selected Science, two students selected Mathematics. Student 1 does not select Mathematics and Science. Student 2 selects subjects except Science. Student 3 does not select History. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Student 1 and Student 2 both selected Mathematics ✓
(B) Student 2 selected History and Student 3 selected Science
(C) Student 1 selected History and Student 3 selected Mathematics
(D) Student 2 selected Mathematics and History

Answer: (A) — From the same deduction, the final allotment is Student 1 = History, Student 2 = Maths and History, Student 3 = Science and Maths. Student 1 never takes Mathematics, so the claim that Students 1 and 2 both selected Mathematics is false. Options (b), (c) and (d) all match the valid allotment and are true.

Q187HistoryAncient India – Religious Movements

Q187. Consider the following statements regarding the philosophical doctrines of Jainism and Buddhism:

Statement-1: As part of their foundational philosophies, Jainism acknowledges the supremacy of the ‘Yajurveda’ for its ascetic practices, whereas Buddhism accepts the authority of the ‘Samaveda’ for its monastic chants.

Statement-2: Buddhism advocates the ‘Madhyam Marg’, whereas Jainism propounds the doctrine of ‘Anekantavada’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
(D) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct. ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement-1 is wrong because both Jainism and Buddhism are heterodox (nastika) traditions that reject the authority of the Vedas, so neither accepts the supremacy of the Yajurveda or Samaveda. Statement-2 is correct: Buddhism teaches the Madhyam Marg (Middle Path) and Jainism is built on Anekantavada, the doctrine of many-sidedness. That makes only Statement-2 right.

Q188International RelationsGlobal Groupings and BRICS

Q188. Following its official expansion, the BRICS grouping has undergone a significant geopolitical transformation. Which of the following statements best explains the most important strategic macroeconomic shift resulting from this expansion?

(A) It transformed the grouping into a formal military alliance functioning as a counterbalance to NATO.
(B) It made grouping the world's largest manufacturing bloc with direct control over global industrial supply chains.
(C) It significantly increased the grouping's influence over global energy markets by including major Middle Eastern petroleum-exporting countries. ✓
(D) It created a compulsory common digital currency for all trade among member countries, replacing the United States Dollar.

Answer: (C) — The BRICS expansion brought in major energy exporters from the Middle East such as the UAE, Iran and Egypt, sharply raising the bloc's combined share of global oil production and reserves. That is the real macroeconomic shift. BRICS is not a military alliance, has no compulsory common currency, and the supply-chain dominance claim in option (b) is overstated.

Q189Indian PolityBasic Structure Doctrine

Q189. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution and judicial pronouncements:

The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, but it must not affect the basic structure.
Judicial Review is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
In the Minerva Mills case the court identified the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as a part of the basic structure.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(C) Only 3 and 4
(D) Only 1 and 4

Answer: (B) — Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: the doctrine emerged in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), Parliament can amend any part under Article 368 short of the basic structure, and Minerva Mills held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of that structure. Statement 3 is wrong because judicial review is itself recognised as part of the basic structure.

Q190GeographyClimatology and Temperature Distribution

Q190. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The annual range of temperature is significantly greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere at equivalent latitudes.

Statement 2: The Northern Hemisphere has a vastly larger proportion of landmass compared to the Southern Hemisphere, leading to intense differential heating and cooling.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1 ✓
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct
(D) Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: (A) — The Northern Hemisphere really does show a larger annual temperature range than the Southern at the same latitudes, so Statement 1 is correct. The reason is exactly what Statement 2 says: the Northern Hemisphere holds far more land, and land heats and cools faster than the ocean-dominated Southern Hemisphere. Statement 2 is therefore the correct explanation.

Q191Indian EconomyMonetary Policy and RBI

Q191. Which of the statement/s given below is/are correct?

Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) refers to the Reserve Bank’s operations through which it injects/absorbs liquidity into/from the banking system.
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is the penal rate at which banks can borrow, on an overnight basis, from the Reserve Bank.
Unlike LAF, MSF can be obtained without pledging any collateral securities by the bank.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2 ✓

Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is right: the Liquidity Adjustment Facility lets the RBI inject or absorb liquidity through repo and reverse-repo operations. Statement 2 is right too: the Marginal Standing Facility is a penal-rate overnight borrowing window above the repo rate. Statement 3 is wrong because MSF borrowing is not collateral-free; banks tap it against eligible securities, including by dipping into their SLR holdings.

Q192Science & TechnologyNuclear Energy Programme

Q192. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about India's nuclear energy programme?

India’s three-stage nuclear programme is centered on plutonium-based fast breeder reactors.
The thorium-based Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) is the main component of India’s third stage.
Kaiga Atomic Power Station houses India’s first Indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR).

Select the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Stage 2 of the three-stage programme runs on plutonium-fuelled Fast Breeder Reactors, and Stage 3 is built around the thorium-based Advanced Heavy Water Reactor, so statements 1 and 2 hold. Statement 3 is wrong because Kaiga is not India's first indigenous PHWR; the first home-built PHWR units came up earlier at Rawatbhata (RAPS) in Rajasthan.

Q193CSATAverages and Mean

Q193. Arithmetic mean of 6 values is 4. If number 5 is found as incorrect value in series and replaced with correct number as 17, then what will be the mean of new data series?

(A) 4
(B) 6 ✓
(C) 8
(D) 10

Answer: (B) — The original sum is 6 x 4 = 24. Swapping the wrong value 5 for the correct 17 changes the sum by +12, giving 36. The new mean is 36 / 6 = 6.

Q194HistoryAncient and Medieval Art and Architecture

Q194. Consider the following statements about Ellora:

Ellora is a unique art-historical site because it features caves belonging to three religions: Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.
The Kailash temple at Ellora was constructed by assembling large, finely cut stone blocks brought from distant quarries.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) Only 1 ✓
(D) Only 2

Answer: (C) — Statement 1 is correct: Ellora is famous for combining Buddhist, Hindu and Jain caves at a single site. Statement 2 is wrong because the Kailasa temple was not assembled from imported blocks; it was carved top-down as a single monolith out of the living basalt cliff.

📖 Read more — Rashtrakuta Dynasty

Q195Indian PolityCensus and Civil Registration

Q195. With reference to demographic data collection and the preparations for the upcoming decadal Census scheduled for 2027, consider the following statements:

Following recent statutory amendments mandating digital birth certificates, the Civil Registration System (CRS) for recording vital events falls under the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
The Houselisting and Housing Census provides comprehensive data on the conditions of human settlements and housing deficits to be taken care of in the formulation of housing policies.
The Mother Tongue Survey project surveys the mother tongues which are recorded consistently across two and more Census decades.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two ✓
(C) All three
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) — Statement 1 is wrong: registration of births and deaths sits in the Concurrent List (Entry 30), not the Union List, so the Civil Registration System is a shared subject. Statement 2 is correct, as the Houselisting and Housing Census captures the condition of settlements and housing shortfalls. Statement 3 is correct, since the Mother Tongue Survey covers tongues recorded consistently across two or more Census decades, leaving two true statements.

📖 Read more — Census India

Q196Indian PolityPanchayati Raj Institutions

Q196. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Gram Sabha' and reservation provisions in Panchayati Raj Institutions:

Gram Sabha is the foundational unit of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all adult voters of the village.
In Panchayat, it is mandatory to reserve seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population.
Reserving the post of Chairperson for women in Panchayats depends on the discretion of the State Government; it is not mandatory.
It is constitutionally mandatory to hold new elections before the five-year term of the Panchayats expires.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) — Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: the Gram Sabha is the body of all adult voters of a village, Article 243D mandates SC/ST reservation in proportion to population, and Article 243E requires fresh elections before the five-year term ends. Statement 3 is wrong because reserving the chairperson's post for women is not left to state discretion; at least one-third of chairperson offices are constitutionally reserved for women.

Q197GeographyAir Masses and Climatology

Q197. Consider the following pairs of Air Mass classifications and their dominant characteristics:

Air Mass	Characteristics
1. Maritime Tropical (mT)	Warm, moist, unstable
2. Continental Polar (cP)	Cold, dry, stable
3. Continental Tropical (cT)	Cool, dry, unstable
4. Maritime Polar (mP)	Cold, moist, unstable

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three ✓
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) — Maritime Tropical (warm, moist, unstable), Continental Polar (cold, dry, stable) and Maritime Polar (cold, moist, unstable) are all correctly matched. The Continental Tropical pair is wrong because cT air is hot and dry, not 'cool'. That leaves three correctly matched pairs.

📖 Read more — Air Masses And Fronts

Q198Indian EconomyMoney and Banking

Q198. Which of the below is/are considered as legal tender in India?

Fiat money
Demand deposits
Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts.

Choose the correct option from the following.

(A) Only 1 ✓
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 3

Answer: (A) — Only fiat money, the currency notes and coins issued under the authority of the state, counts as legal tender that must be accepted to settle debts. Demand deposits and cheques are not legal tender; they are payment instruments a creditor can refuse. So only statement 1 qualifies.

Q199Science & TechnologyNutrition and Health

Q199. Consider the following statements regarding the factors affecting glycemic index:

If the amount of fiber in a food is high, the glycemic index can be reduced.
If the food is processed further, its glycemic index can be increased.
Fat in food always speeds up the absorption of glucose.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2 ✓
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is right: higher fibre slows digestion and lowers the glycemic index. Statement 2 is right too, since heavier processing breaks down food structure and pushes the glycemic index up. Statement 3 is wrong because fat tends to slow gastric emptying and glucose absorption rather than speed it up.

Q200CSATLCM and Divisibility

Q200. The largest number of three digits which is divisible by 3, 5, 7 and 9 is

(A) 549
(B) 688
(C) 826
(D) 945 ✓

Answer: (D) — The LCM of 3, 5, 7 and 9 is 315 (since 9 already covers 3). The largest three-digit multiple of 315 is 315 x 3 = 945, because 315 x 4 = 1260 exceeds three digits.

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